Spanish language Q&A Forum

There's a question about how we went to an Indian restaurant and ate everything because it was very rich. The thing they're eating is "food," but the answer wanted you to use "todo." They had it agree with the adjective of rich, but there's nothing that indicates a masculine noun.

I believe that according to RAE, the vosotros form of both verbs should have a tilde – creáis.

This problem is in addition to the yo form problem others have mentioned.

Most of this seems too awkward of grammar. Like that.

I think you will have had to be desperate to speak to utter this.

Wow! Question. How does: "en qué momento se me habrá ocurrido" come to mean: "I'm wondering why I thought this was a good idea"?

Is it a standard phrase for "Me pregunto por qué pensé que era una buena idea?"

Would "en qué momento pensé que era una buena idea?"work?

Wouldn't ¿Crees que has aprobado el examen? be "Do you think you have passed the exam?" I don't know the grammatical tense that applies, but on the face of it, it seems the "have" should be represented in the English.

Also, does Spanish have an equivalent of "do?" I think i read that it does not. In English it is often ommitted, so it's probably ok to not always include it in translations.

Vosotros is used because the speaker is talking to more than one person. 

Also, i read that vos (singular) is only used in Latin America. 

Hi, my understanding was that "un poco" was always used when poco was used as a pronoun, instead of as an adjective or adverb along with the explicit noun?

Ex:  Quieres arroz?  Si, un poco (de arroz).

Ex:  Solo quiero poco arroz.

Ex:  Necisito estudiar poco.

Is this not correct?

Thanks!!  

*(BTW, this website is so incredibly helpful. 

A well-written, well-articulated offering but way too much resonance on the microphone creating a "booming" that makes it hard to discern words.

Daba escalafríos andar por el pasillo. Is there no need for "me" or "nos" or are they optional? "Me daba escalafríos"?