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Hi. I remember learning that when we almost do something in the past, then we use the present tense, so that ¡casi me desmayé! would be ¡casi me desmayo!
Is this right or wrong or an acceptable alternative in speaking or writing?
Thanks
Stuart
I had the correct answer to the question below........until I read the hint which totalaly confused me as "Retrasar" was present in gerundial form in one of the possible choices.
Is there are reason these sentences are in the pretérito perfecto:
La obra de teatro nos ha aburrido mucho
Me ha encantado tu actuación
The English translations aren't in the perfect. I could imagine saying "the play has bored us" and that carrying a somewhat different meaning than "the play bored us". Similarly, "I have loved your performance" might be something one would say to a regular company member who is leaving after 6 months in a role, while "I loved your performance" might be said to some immediately after seeing their show for the first time (in English). I am trying to understand the nuances of why you might use the perfect tense in Spanish when it seems like the indefinite tense would work as well (and in English would mean something different).
All the examples are for when someone disagrees with the first statement. Could these ever be used to express agreement?
Confession. I always cheat on questions regarding the second person plural because I live in California where I have frequent opportunities to use Spanish and hope to have more both at home and in travels to Central and South America. No disrespect to Spain, but is there any way to alter my tests so they exclude questions which test Spanish as it's spoken in Spain. Thanks.
When, if ever, is the construction "no...nada" used? When is "nada" used?
Just curious! Is there a difference in use in terms of formal/informal register with these two constructions, or is “tan...como” just more common? Thanks!
Hi,
In the sentence above, the translation of "... comer sano." is given as '... eat healthily'. Doesn't 'sano' mean 'healthy' and 'sanamente' mean healthily?
I'm sorry to be so pedantic, but I like to get things right at the start.
Best regards,
Colin
Hi. I remember learning that when we almost do something in the past, then we use the present tense, so that ¡casi me desmayé! would be ¡casi me desmayo!
Is this right or wrong or an acceptable alternative in speaking or writing?
Thanks
Stuart
I had the correct answer to the question below........until I read the hint which totalaly confused me as "Retrasar" was present in gerundial form in one of the possible choices.
Choose the right sentence in Spanish for "Come on, don't fall behind!":HINT: retrasarse = to fall behind¡A no retrasando!¡Vamos, no os retrasáis!¡Andando que os retrasáis!¡Estéis retrasados!I had the correct answer to the question below........until I read the hint which totalaly confused me as "Retrasar" was present in gerundial form in one of the possible choices.
Choose the right sentence in Spanish for "Come on, don't fall behind!":HINT: retrasarse = to fall behind¡A no retrasando!¡Vamos, no os retrasáis!¡Andando que os retrasáis!¡Estéis retrasados!I thought the answer were plural, muchas for feminine. However, the answer is mucho. May I know what is the reason.
Is there are reason these sentences are in the pretérito perfecto:
La obra de teatro nos ha aburrido mucho
Me ha encantado tu actuación
The English translations aren't in the perfect. I could imagine saying "the play has bored us" and that carrying a somewhat different meaning than "the play bored us". Similarly, "I have loved your performance" might be something one would say to a regular company member who is leaving after 6 months in a role, while "I loved your performance" might be said to some immediately after seeing their show for the first time (in English). I am trying to understand the nuances of why you might use the perfect tense in Spanish when it seems like the indefinite tense would work as well (and in English would mean something different).
All the examples are for when someone disagrees with the first statement. Could these ever be used to express agreement?
Confession. I always cheat on questions regarding the second person plural because I live in California where I have frequent opportunities to use Spanish and hope to have more both at home and in travels to Central and South America. No disrespect to Spain, but is there any way to alter my tests so they exclude questions which test Spanish as it's spoken in Spain. Thanks.
When, if ever, is the construction "no...nada" used? When is "nada" used?
Just curious! Is there a difference in use in terms of formal/informal register with these two constructions, or is “tan...como” just more common? Thanks!
Hi,
In the sentence above, the translation of "... comer sano." is given as '... eat healthily'. Doesn't 'sano' mean 'healthy' and 'sanamente' mean healthily?
I'm sorry to be so pedantic, but I like to get things right at the start.
Best regards,
Colin
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