Reflexive verb word structureHola! I am getting confused by the reflexive form of llamarse (and other verbs like sentirse, mentioned in later lessons). I have a background in French, so reflexive verbs are not new to me. However, I am feeling confused by:
1. the reflexive component being treated as a suffix to the main verb rather than a separate word, like (se lever "to get up"), where the reflexive pronoun is both in front and separated from the main verb. My English speaking brain screams that something is wrong when I am instructed to deconstruct a word before changing its order and then conjugating it.
2. I cannot tell whether to treat llamarse and llamar as two truly different verbs, as opposed to just the reflexive version of the base verb (in this case, llamar). Again, my English brain can't quite accept that they are the same base verb. Are they truly moore akin to French reflexive verbs, where they are simply a reflexive version of the base verb?
3. Are there Spanish verbs that end -se that will not be reflexive? Will we only figure out what those are through exposure?
ps - How can I find my questions after I have asked them in a specific lesson discussion? I often ask questions, but then lose track because I don't remember in which lesson I asked the question. Is there some place in my account profile to locate my past questions?
Hello, for this question:
"You cannot imagine how interesting it is!
Kwizbot's answer:
¡No te imaginas lo interesante que es!"
I would've liked a lesson (s) pertaining to this (these) structure(s). i.e.: Lo + Adjective + que and structure (idiom?) for something like You can't imagine..
I´m going to guess I´m missing something stupid but why does this lesson title mention Imperfecto? Surely it´s all about Poder in El Futuro Simple, not Imperfecto?
¨Conjugate irregular verb poder in the future tense in Spanish (El Futuro Simple/Imperfecto)¨
Hola! I am getting confused by the reflexive form of llamarse (and other verbs like sentirse, mentioned in later lessons). I have a background in French, so reflexive verbs are not new to me. However, I am feeling confused by:
1. the reflexive component being treated as a suffix to the main verb rather than a separate word, like (se lever "to get up"), where the reflexive pronoun is both in front and separated from the main verb. My English speaking brain screams that something is wrong when I am instructed to deconstruct a word before changing its order and then conjugating it.
2. I cannot tell whether to treat llamarse and llamar as two truly different verbs, as opposed to just the reflexive version of the base verb (in this case, llamar). Again, my English brain can't quite accept that they are the same base verb. Are they truly moore akin to French reflexive verbs, where they are simply a reflexive version of the base verb?
3. Are there Spanish verbs that end -se that will not be reflexive? Will we only figure out what those are through exposure?
ps - How can I find my questions after I have asked them in a specific lesson discussion? I often ask questions, but then lose track because I don't remember in which lesson I asked the question. Is there some place in my account profile to locate my past questions?
In the quiz I got mi madre tine dos primos and I put Itanianas but the correct answer was Italianos why is this? I thought since they are talking about a woman it would be a feminine. Sorry if this sounds rly stupid just really stumped me.
En el ejemplo "Siempre ellos están cominedo chocolates", no significa que ahora mismo comen chocolates sino en general comen chocolates. Asi que creo que la oración corecta es "Siempre ellos comen chocolates". No necesito user presente progresivo. ¿Correcto?
other than habia how can you say there was/there were
Shouldn't the correct answer be 'alguno‘? The quiz says correct answer is 'algunos'. Even the AI said correct answer is 'alguno'.
I doesn’t make any difference what the lister knows or doesn’t know. It is what the speaker perceives. Your explanation makes understanding the tooic moe confusing. Sorry
Would it be incorrect to use a pronoun or even a named subject in the que clause in order to clarify specifically who one is talking about since 1st and 3rd person singular forms are the same?
Using the examples above:
Han hecho que reconsidere la oferta.
(odd but gramatically correct) Me han hecho que reconsidere la oferta. (???)
Similar to other subjunctive que clauses could I say:
Han hecho que yo reconsidere la oferta.
or Han hecho que ella reconsidere la oferta.
or even Han hecho que (a?) Maria reconsidere la oferta.
Or does this just need to be understood from further context?
Small clarification: does cocer actually mean "to boil"?
I thought it meant to cook in a hot water, not exactly "boil".
If I am wrong then how is it different from hervir?
Thank you in advance.
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