Spanish language Q&A Forum

I have trouble understanding why the question "Do you always choose your own clothes?" has the correct answer ¿Ustedes eligen siempre su ropa? I don't understand why ustedes is used instead of the singular usted, i.e. ¿Usted elige siempre su ropa?

Many of the test questions use what I think is the plural form when it is referring to one person. I don't doubt that the answer is correct usage, I just don't understand why ustedes is used sometimes when referring to one person.

Thank you

In this sentence: “La mayoría de sus calles no tienen nombre.”

If the sentence means “the majority of its streets don’t have names”, why is nombre singular and not plural?

If the sentence means : “the majority of its streets don’t have a name”, why is the indefinite article “un” not used for “a”?

I don’t understand the use of quedarse in this sentence: “me quedé gratamente sorprendido”. It means I was pleasantly surprised. Why not use a form of estar in the preterite to express surprise? Unless this is a phrase used or has another meaning? I thought quedarse meant to stay. Thanks!

I have very recently learned about Spanish subjunctive verbs. They seem most difficult to use. Hopefully I can learn a pattern as to how to use them properly. Will anyone on this site be able to guide me?

Hola,

Would it be possible to also say '...mi seccion favorita es la de musica' as well the given "...mi seccion favorita es la seccion de musica"?

Gracias.

I am having difficulty understanding the difference in terminology between "impersonal se" and "passive reflexive se" and in particular the difference in their translation into English. ¿Puedes ayudarme?

nos sentamos en una banqueta, de lo más felices mientras la música....

In the lesson on emphasis all the examples use a masculine singular adjective ( I put de lo más contento ) but was marked wrong. Is it really wrong?

Gracias

Hello!

Why use subjuntivo vs indicativo in this sentence? 

Una vez que ustedes firmen, no hay marcha atrás. 

I can’t imagine using subjuntivo, or maybe I’m just thinking of it as a real factual warning vs something hypothetical that I can’t imagine in real situation. 

I have noticed that the word “video” is pronounced differently in Spain and Latin America.  In Latin America, the word is pronounced as 3 syllables and the accent is on the “e” (2nd or middle syllable).  In contrast, in Spain the word seems to be pronounced with the accent on the “i” (1st syllable) and it seems like the word may only have 2 syllables in the peninsular pronunciation (with the “eo” pronounced as a one syllable diphthong).  Is this correct, and if not, what is going on here?