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FYI: this sentence in English is incorrect.
I bought her some books about Mexico in case they were useful for his trip to Acapulco.
"in case they would be useful"
Finding this lesson on Kwiziq has proved a real revelation for me! I've been learning Spanish for the last 3-4 years through online courses geared toward Latin American Spanish and wasn't aware of this difference. I've always been aware of some regional vocabulary differences but, since I've geared my learning toward Peninsular Spanish (which I need), I'm now finding quite a few grammatical differences too. I had seen the perfect used in this way in El País articles and books etc but I'd not been able to find any resource that actually explained it... until now!
Could you answer how specific times might influence choose of tense?
I spoke to him at 3am this morning
His flight left at 6pm today
These specific times seem to indicate start and finish times. Do they point toward preterite?
Puedo decir, “para conocer a uno de mis actores preferidos”, también?
I think there is an error in this example translated sentence - pencil is mentioned 2 x.
Prefiero aquellos lápices de colores.
I prefer those pencil coloured pencils (over there).
I'm a bit confused by this example. Why is it "al que"? Could it be "al cual"? Thanks for your help!
MOTHER: Of course, the guy who you met at the Spanish course at University,MADRE: Claro, el chico al quien conociste en el curso de español de la universidad,MADRE: Claro, el chico al que conociste en el curso de español de la universidad,
Hi, there. I am a native speaker. If anybody asks me where do I live, I will never repeat "I live in...". The natural answer is "In Barcelona".
"Me llamo Juan". I am confused because there is no verb. Is it incorrect to say "Me llamo es Juan"? Where else in Spanish are verbs omitted?
Both seem to mean exactly the same thing. Also, there is only the one 'r' which is causing difference between the two? Can they be used interchangeably?
I have had this problem for a while, and no Spanish speaker can readily explain it:
In English, an adjectival form can only describe a noun; for a verb, you must use the adjectival form. The only exception of which I know is "I am well." Because so few English speakers have good grammar these days, "I am good" has become a colloquialism that is acceptable. But one can never say "I cook good" or "He lives happy".
But in Spanish, I see this all the time though Spanish speakers also acknowledge the rule that adverbs, not adjectives, describe verbs. In this lesson, I just saw it again:
Espero que vivas feliz en tu apartamento nuevo.I hope you live happily in your new flat.
Any clarification of this usage would be gratefully accepted.
In the test section it says: "Los profesores ___ con los padres de los alumnos"
I thought that should be 'charlaron' because it is an action in the past which has been completed but the system says it is 'charlaban'.