Spanish language Q&A Forum

If the presence of “a” after a verb means it is “Ir” a not “ser”, Then why is  “yo fui de fiesta an Ibiza” also conjugated “as ir?” The verb is not followed by “a”. Only the noun is followed by a. So why is it “I went,” and not “I was at”?

I find this very confusing. Does the rule apply to a and de alike ?

Thanks!

Wouldn´t some other options for "appetizer" include: entrante, aperitivo, entrada?

For "main course":  plato principal, plato fuerte

for "some":  algunos/algunas   as in "algunas buenas verduras"

If there were already influencers of all kinds on the networks, athleisure was not going to be an exception.

I am struggling to understand the meaning of this sentence.  Is it talking about a hypothetical or real situation?

The best answer is given as:

Si ya había influencers de todo tipo en las redes,

 Why is it not hubiera?

Gracias

Thank you for adding this topic. I'd like to make 2 suggestions. 

First, is there a regional preference for using the two pairs of interchangeable words? My understanding is that in Latin America, people tend to use aca' and alla' whereas in Spain, people tend to use aqui' and alli'. Is this correct? 

Second, I am not sure whether the pronunciation of ahi' and alli' are the same. Since "h" is silent and "ll" has the "y" sound, I suppose they sound differently, but the sounds /i/ and /yi/ really do not have much noticeable difference. Is there a way to practice distinguishing the two or we can more or less treat them as sounding the same? Thank you!

in the text...

´Me ha invitado al teatro varias veces, y se ha ofrecido a pagar para los dos.... ´

Question is....      Is ´se ha ofrecido´ a typo of ´me ha ofrecido´?

gracias de antemano

How do I add Spanish accents and upside down question marks when completing written exercises?  My keyboard does not support Spanish language.  

I continue to have exactly the same problem as the users below.  Your team really needs to fix this.