Spanish language Q&A Forum

Es Paraguay una pais pobre, o una pais rica?

quien son personas famosos de Paraguay?

Como estan los cuidades en Paraguay?

como son los calles y casas en Paraguay?

I have noticed that the word “video” is pronounced differently in Spain and Latin America.  In Latin America, the word is pronounced as 3 syllables and the accent is on the “e” (2nd or middle syllable).  In contrast, in Spain the word seems to be pronounced with the accent on the “i” (1st syllable) and it seems like the word may only have 2 syllables in the peninsular pronunciation (with the “eo” pronounced as a one syllable diphthong).  Is this correct, and if not, what is going on here?

I have a doubt. I came across the following sentences in a book:

1. El ruido me bombardea los tímpanos sin cesar cada día

2. Los sonidos resurgían dentro de mis tímpanos

Sentence 1 seems like a perfect example of how you explained in this article. But what about sentence 2? Why would we use the adjective here instead of the article?

Thanks!

Hola! 

I'm having a hard time wrapping my mind around the purpose of doubling down on the indirect object usage in some of these examples:

"Ella le envió un regalo a Miguel. 

She sent a present to Miguel."

In this example, why do you need the le if you already have Miguel. It reads to me literally as "she him sent a present to Miguel" and I suppose it feels like excessive and unnecessary additional language in an already clear sentence. Is it for emphasis? Por favor ayúdame a entender.

This is a good concise explanation, but having more targeted practice opportunities would help me progress in this area.