Separated double object pronouns HI, I see this construction sometimes and very few info on it online. But sometimes two pronouns with two verbs in a sentence are separated with one before the first conjugated verb and other attached to the following infinitive verb. In my book for example - el pez numero catource-
1-- una vez la oí confesarle a Bernadette que tenía miedo de volver a equivocarse---
Why not, -- se la oí confesar ?
2-- Mi abuelo no contesta. Se limita a mirarlo con hostilidad.--
Why not: se lo limita a mirar?
What is this type of construction called?
Why separate them? Is this construction interchangeable with the traditional form of keeping pronouns together?
How common is it? I don't see it very often.
Thanks a lot
HI, I see this construction sometimes and very few info on it online. But sometimes two pronouns with two verbs in a sentence are separated with one before the first conjugated verb and other attached to the following infinitive verb. In my book for example - el pez numero catource-
1-- una vez la oí confesarle a Bernadette que tenía miedo de volver a equivocarse---
Why not, -- se la oí confesar ?
2-- Mi abuelo no contesta. Se limita a mirarlo con hostilidad.--
Why not: se lo limita a mirar?
What is this type of construction called?
Why separate them? Is this construction interchangeable with the traditional form of keeping pronouns together?
How common is it? I don't see it very often.
Thanks a lot
I did not catch the first spoken sentence. I did not at all hear "tenemos mucha hambre y sed". Was something else said instead?
Hello Kwiziq team .
I have a question concerning the use of the subjunctive mood.
1. No porque sea gratis significa que me lo vaya a comer todo
2. No porque sea gratis me lo voy a comer todo.
Are both phrases correct ? What is the nuance when you opt to use the subjunctive or the indicative mood.
Thank you in advance. Your answers are always helpful in solving our grammatical doubts
You answer 'los doctores PREFIERE but the plural form is PREFIEREN, which is an option
Can you help please
The lesson addresses masculine singular nouns but not feminine singular nouns.
Would we say:
El guiso lleva mucha salvia.
OR Comiste mucha coliflor.
Thanks.
Gracias Silvia for reminding me to find time to read this classic!
I have had 2 copies of this wonderful novel ready and waiting to be read for some time now; one English copy and the other in Spanish.
For anyone that may be interested, Netflix are showing the adaptation of this fabulous story- it was released on the 17th I believe. It's my Netflix film for this weekend :))
Obtuve más de lo que quería. (I got more than I wanted.)
This sentence seems to require más de, though it is a comparison, and no numbers are involved. Can you explain this, please?
No se entra simplemente en Mordor.
I think my translation of Boromir's famous line is probably ok, but whether any Spanish speakers talk like that might be a question.
Shouldn't this be suavemente? Softly is an adverb here not an adjective?
I'm a bit confused on when to use hacia vs. para for "toward" a destination? Two of the introductory examples in this section indicate para can be used for "to/toward". One of these examples is "Vamos para la playa porque hay una fiesta". Would it be incorrect to say "Vamos hacia la playa porque hay una fiesta"? My sense is that "hacia" means just going toward an end point or destination, without implying an actual arrival or end point. Is this the difference? Thanks for clarifying.
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