once again gustar!Just when I thought I'd gotten the hang of gustar and verbs like it, along comes: Pues, me ha dicho Lola que le gustas a Ricardo.
So, "me ha dicho Lola que" = "Lola told me that", "gustas" is second person singular as applies to "you" the person being spoken to, no? "le" is the Indirect Object for "to/by him", si? Is the "a" before "Ricardo" the personal "a" or the preposition "to" ? Entonces; "le gustas a Ricardo" = to him you are pleasing (Ricardo) ??
But Ricardo is the subject and I thought it would be "te gusta Ricardo" = Ricardo is pleased by you / you are liked by Ricardo. Does "gustas" refer to Ricardo or to Sonia and to whom would 3ra persona "gusta" apply?
But I'm thinking:
Le gustas a Ricardo = to him you are pleasing (liked) by Ricardo (personal a ?) Ricardo likes you.
whereas: Te gusta Ricardo = By you is liked Ricardo. You like Ricardo.
HELP?? porfis . . .
I have to comment again on English word choices. In the English interpretation of Yo hago la comida por las mañanas, wouldn't "I make" be more appropriate than "I prepare?" Because wouldn't "yo preparo" be the Spanish for "I prepare?"
Hi
If I want to find when someone is coming to visit would I use the subjunctive as it's an unknown e.g.
¿Cuando vayas a venir a verme?
Or would I use the indicative?
Based on this list, is it safe to say that E>I only occurs with -IR verbs, and therefore, -AR and -ER verbs do not have this possibility. If so, it might be helpful to put a note at the top of this list that E>I only occurs with -IR verbs, unlike E>IE which can occur in -AR, -ER, and -IR verbs.
In the test question, How would you say "I have eaten only fruit for a week."?, the answer was Desde hace una semana solo como fruta.
But I chose Desde hace una semana solo he comido fruta. Why isn't that one correct, given the "have eaten?"
Cuando sea mayor, seré médico.When I am older, I will be a doctor.Cuando vayas al mercado compra fruta y verdura.When you go to the market, buy fruit and vegetables.
Also, when the subjunctive is used is it always part of the cuando clause?
Why do we say "ciento por ciento"? Ciento is more than one hundred so shouldn't it only be cien por ciento and cien por cien?
Just when I thought I'd gotten the hang of gustar and verbs like it, along comes: Pues, me ha dicho Lola que le gustas a Ricardo.
So, "me ha dicho Lola que" = "Lola told me that", "gustas" is second person singular as applies to "you" the person being spoken to, no? "le" is the Indirect Object for "to/by him", si? Is the "a" before "Ricardo" the personal "a" or the preposition "to" ? Entonces; "le gustas a Ricardo" = to him you are pleasing (Ricardo) ??
But Ricardo is the subject and I thought it would be "te gusta Ricardo" = Ricardo is pleased by you / you are liked by Ricardo. Does "gustas" refer to Ricardo or to Sonia and to whom would 3ra persona "gusta" apply?
But I'm thinking:
Le gustas a Ricardo = to him you are pleasing (liked) by Ricardo (personal a ?) Ricardo likes you.
whereas: Te gusta Ricardo = By you is liked Ricardo. You like Ricardo.
HELP?? porfis . . .
Are there other similar idiomatic expressions or must one use the conventional gramatical constructs? For example:
If you were me... (Tú que yo?)
If I were him... (Yo que él?)
If he were you... (Él que tu?)
etc.
Saludos
"Mi amiga Lucía estaba perdida en un desértico" Can we use perderse here and say " Mi amiga Lucía se perdía en un desértico" ?
Kevin
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