Spanish language Q&A Forum

I wonder what the purpose of the subtle but significant change of meaning in Tanta luz no es buena to mean "This much light is not good." instead of "So much light is not good?"

If one is hired as a translator, I don't think one would take it upon oneself to make a change of the speaker's meaning in such a way.

Cuando queremos decir "you won't regret it!", por qué con el verbo arrepentirse lo usamos sin el objeto "it", pero cuando usamos el verbo lamentar, lo usamos con el objeto "it". 

Por ejemplo: No te arrepentirás (sin objeto) versus no lo lamentarás (con objeto)
 (muchas gracias)

Os sugiero que estéis alerta.

Should not "alerta" be "alertas" as we talk to "them" plural You?

In my experience, and according to my dictionary, reflection (in a mirror or an observation) is el reflejo, unless it is the action in physics of something bouncing of something else

Why does the word "llamáis" (or a lot of other verb forms for vosotros) have an accent on the penultimate syllable even though it ends with the letter s?

Hi Inma

Am I right to assume that these essentially translate into English as the same thing? Otherwise, could you explain any other differences in meaning that might exist? 

1) Su avión ha debido retrasarse

2) Su avión debe haberse retrasado

AND that adding 'de' also makes no difference to the meaning (other than maybe 'strengthening' the assumption as we learned about here: Spanish modal verb Deber versus Deber de (obligation and assumption))? 

Saludos 

Hello! I don't see the transcription. I spent time transcribing my understanding of this, and I hope I will be able to check my answer. -A

Yup.  Makes no sense at all.  I also watched videos on youtube for "por v. para."  Incomprehensible.  Pretty soon, I will shelve Spanish.  I have gotten to the point where it is a reality that I will not achieve fluency or really go beyond the basic, "Quiere sal?"