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5,793 questions • 9,477 answers • 947,283 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,793 questions • 9,477 answers • 947,283 learners
under the dictation, a part of the sentence says
Y nos invitaban a todos a una ceremonia y una fiesta, en una estación de esquí la Navidad próxima.
i understand that nos invitaban = they invited us
nos invitaban a una fiesta = they invited us to a party
but what does a todos means?
ayudame por favor
muchas gracias
For this question about recibir in the imperfect, I inserted the "personal a" but it was marked wrong. Ayudame por favor!
In his small apartment he didn't receive guests. --> En su apartamento pequeño no recibía a visitas. (recibía was correct but adding a was marked wrong)
I don’t understand why the 2nd sentence (starting “Fue”) uses the indefinido but the 3rd sentence (starting “La lengua” uses the imperfecto. I can’t really see any difference between them and I thought they should both be the imperfecto tense since they refer to something that happened over a long period. Likewise tense choices in the later sentences. Thanks for your help, Tony
I found the sentence, ¿por qué habría de asustar un sombrero?— me respondieron. I tried looking it up and apparently haber de can be used conditionally to express confusion of a topic. i think this is important as well as haber que, i saw it in a book although i can't remember the sentence haber que is apparently also another form of obligation like tener que
I'm confused by the title of this article: "personal "a" verbs". Isn't the issue whether the direct object is a person or not, rather than the verb used? In addition to the verbs mentioned, isn't the same true of all the verbs on https://spanish.kwiziq.com/learn/theme/830919 as well as necesitar, golpear, ... indeed any transitive verb?
In the lesson on 'Para mí que' it gives its use as - 'we simply express having a feeling, an inkling about something happening'
The English text here says 'What amazes me...' Surely that's stronger than an inkling!
It also says 'esta sigue siendo un medio de lo más popular' Why isn't it 'este' as it refers to the masculine word medio
Gracias
Hola,
Me confunde mucho el uso de ¨ser¨y ¨estar¨ en la voz pasiva. ¿Podrían ustedes aclararlo?
Gracias.
Hello, I'm slightly confused with the following:
Debe de haber llovido esta noche, porque los coches están mojados.As you can see from the previous examples, when we use deber with this nuance of assumption/wondering, we can optionally use the preposition "de" after deber.
So you are saying that "de" is truly optional and has the same meaning whether "de" is used or not?
Thank you,
Dave
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