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5,779 questions • 9,441 answers • 941,306 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,779 questions • 9,441 answers • 941,306 learners
hi what's the rule for using the subjunctive here?thank you
I think trifle is British English. Can someone tell me what it means in American English?
Not really a question but this lesson could be better if in included the three rules for plural
1# ends in vowel add s
2# ends in consonant add es
3# ends in z change to c and add es.
as far as I know this is correct
For this question about recibir in the imperfect, I inserted the "personal a" but it was marked wrong. Ayudame por favor!
In his small apartment he didn't receive guests. --> En su apartamento pequeño no recibía a visitas. (recibía was correct but adding a was marked wrong)
Would it be correct to use the word “solo” like this:
No me queda mucho dinero; solo tengo para dos cervezas más.
It’s just that we might say it this way in English.
Also in general can the word “solo” be used with clauses of limitation?
really enjoyable seeing the action described so clearly
The difference between an "event still to happen" and one that "will happen" can be determined only by the ability to predict the future. It is not a grammatical issue. So neither the indicative nor subjunctive choice is grammatically incorrect. It's a semantic difference, not a grammatical one. I've seen you make very different choices -- different from what I thought was meant.
Why is it "las puertas y ventanas" and not "las puertas y las ventanas"? Usually Spanish seems to have two definite articles where English has only one.
I think there might be a correction to the English is this sentence:
I've just seen the singer who they gave a prize last year.
I believe it should say:
I've just seen the singer to whom they gave a prize last year.
Why does one sentence use con terminación en., And the next sentence use que acaban en for the same English construction?
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