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6,017 questions • 9,832 answers • 1,014,036 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,017 questions • 9,832 answers • 1,014,036 learners
I understood from the lesson on 'Whoever / all those who' that todos aquellos was always followed by a subjunctive.
...una muñeca querida en los corazones de todos aquellos que han tenido el placer de disfrutar... shouldn't this be hayan tenido el placer?
Gracias
I understand that no articles are used in negatives
e.g no hay tienda
Therefore, I am asking whether you would also drop the article in this sense?
e.g hay el de rojo--> no hay de rojo?
Thank you Silvia,
You write that "for" in
"she has made many sacrifices for her children"
implies a cause / an originating reason.
If so, why "for" in
"she has made many books for her children"
does not imply a cause?
Also, is the following ungrammatical:
"Ha hecho muchos sacrificios para sus hijos."
Perhaps it would be helpful with these various stem changing verb lessons to explain more clearly that the vowel changes only affect the vowels when they are in syllables that are stressed, rather than giving the impression that the nosotros/as and vosotras/os forms are just arbitrary exceptions. I think that grasping that makes it a lot easier to internalize the pattern than just trying to memorize exceptions without understanding why they work that way.
Hola,
Thank you for this lesson. I understand that ningun is used before a noun:
"No tengo ningun dinero para ir de compras hoy.";
"Ningun estudiante hizo la tarea."
My confusion is when concerning when to use "ningun" vs "ninguno"?
Saludos
It says, Además, me encantaría que mis alumnos desarrollen....
I was thinking it would say instead, Además me encantaría que mis alumnos desarrollaran...
Maybe I am overgeneralizing a concept or rule that isn't used here?
I don’t understand why the 2nd sentence (starting “Fue”) uses the indefinido but the 3rd sentence (starting “La lengua” uses the imperfecto. I can’t really see any difference between them and I thought they should both be the imperfecto tense since they refer to something that happened over a long period. Likewise tense choices in the later sentences. Thanks for your help, Tony
Hi, in this exercise, Lola 'odia a los gatos' but I think that Danny "odia los perros", in Lola's translation.
Is there a difference in whether the personal 'a' is needed in each case? I weighed it up as - it is a definable person/pet? and I opted for 'not' using personal a because they hate dogs/cats in general. Hmm, but then again, they are sort of talking about their own pets?
Then there's the question of 'odiar' being clearly a strong feeling... but not exactly a strong affection.
Please help!
cheers,
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