Spanish language Q&A Forum

I see here that querer does not have an accent for the first person preterito indefinido: quise, whereas some verbs have one, like compré - is there a rule that I can apply to distinguish it, or is it just because querer is irregular?

Thanks

Perhaps it would be helpful with these various stem changing verb lessons to explain more clearly that the vowel changes only affect the vowels when they are in syllables that are stressed, rather than giving the impression that the nosotros/as and vosotras/os forms are just arbitrary exceptions. I think that grasping that makes it a lot easier to internalize the pattern than just trying to memorize exceptions without understanding why they work that way. 

I get this message a lot :

You took this Kwiz 2 days, 20 hours ago.

This lesson is already in your notebook. Go to your notebook now to kwiz this topic as many times as you like.

Hi Kwiziq experts,

In the phrase "Lo que más me gustó de la gastronomía local fue deleitarme con..."  I wrote "Lo que más me gustó de la gastronomía local ERA deleitarme con..."   I was marked wrong and corrected "era DELEITARSE con"  and I'm not sure why that is. Is it down to whether one uses fue or era in the sentence?

Many thanks

Dee

…but I’ve just realised why I get confused about when to use the subjunctive after ‘no sé que…’ (‘I don’t know that…’) or ‘no sé qué…’ (‘I don’t know which/what…’), now I realise that I should use the subjunctive in the first case and not in the second. Thank you! 

Thank you for clarifying that this expression functions similar to the verb gustar.  I believe that the gustar structure is sometimes used with 3rd person plural, such as "Me gustan las películas."  Is there ever a time that "dar a alguien por algo" is used with 3rd person plural when followed by a plural noun?  For example, if I wanted to say "Now that my friend has retired, she has taken up new hobbies," would I still say, "Ahora que mi amiga se ha jubilado, le ha dado pasatiempos nuevos"?  Thank you!