Spanish language Q&A Forum

I've used "le" for men AND women (e.g. "Un gusto conocerle!", "Pásenle" etc.), but the article says it's only for men. This is Spanish spoken in a Mexican-American household, so I don't know how that affects things-- could be improper Spanish, but I thought I'd check because I hear it often. 

I did struggle to understand why "se recordaba" was in the singular in "... solo se recordaba a los difuntos el 1 de noviembre" [= "the deceased were only remembered on November 1st"].

At first, I was tempted to make it plural to agree with "difuntos". As a passive construction, I thought it could be compared with "se venden apartamentos de lujo en la playa" - (given as one of the examples in Forming the Spanish passive with se (la pasiva refleja) ... which is the lesson we get referred to).

Anyway, I was also "scratching my head" regarding the use or non-use of the "personal 'a' " in a passive sentence of this nature - [Compare "Se buscan secretarias con experiencia" in that^ same lesson] ..

I then looked in my grammar book [by Butt and Benjamin], and discovered that this is part of a construction which evolved comparatively recently in the Spanish language - in which the use of the "personal 'a' " makes a singular verb necessary even when the [passive] subject is in the plural.  

I answered: yo no dije esa palabra. Why is that marked as incorrect 

Notice how in Spanish we need toadd "y" between the tens and the units (cincuenta y cuatro). Three thousand six hundred and six.

Missing word - Don't pay for those for him, or Don't buy those for him, maybe?

In one question, I was tasked to translate "I want to buy it for him."     I selected " Quiero se lo comprar."   and was marked wrong.   I understand that one could say "Quiero comprárselo." , which was the correct answer.   But I always thought that you could have the pronouns attached to the infinitive or put them in front.   

When would be appropriate to use formal and informal second person?

For context, I'm planning to speak mostly with my Mexican family members, many that I'll be meeting for the first time or for the first time in many years. Most of them are older than me (I have one younger brother who speaks mostly Spanish). Would it be better to speak formally to the older family members, or informally because they're family?

Would you start formally with strangers (esp. those who are older) and then at some point be able to drop formality as you become closer to people, or as they express to you that it's okay (similar to Korean and Japanese)?

Please add “los anocheceres” to the lesson as an exception. 

Only “Los amaneceres” is mentioned.

I've been learning Spanish slowly for many years now, from taking classes, learning online, and speaking with native speakers.  My interactions in Spanish have been limited to Latin Americans, primarily due to the fact that I live somewhat close to the US/Mexico border.  In my previous learning, I've been made aware of the word "vosotros" but not much beyond that.  The conjugations I had previously been taught omitted the "vosotros" form.  I have also never heard the word "vosotros" used in any conversations.

I'm curious how common it is as the lessons I am going through have the conjugations for that form, as well as examples.  I'm not sure how much focus I should place on relearning conjugations for the vosotros form given my preference to learn Latin American Spanish.

Thank you in advance for your help!