Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi, I have been told (by two different Spanish people) that 'Me estoy leyendo...' signifies 'I am reading (right now)...', but I cannot find any lessons relating to this.  Is there such a lesson?

When do we know it its te or tu gusta is it just dependent on if it is a reflextive verb or not

Forgive me. The lesson explains this very clearly, but I'm still having trouble wrapping my head around the idea that there is absolutely no difference in meaning at all between the use of el indicativo and el subjuntivo with quizá and tal vez. I had read elsewhere a lengthy discussion about how these two always triggered the subjunctive and a lo mejor always used the indicative. Most examples I've encountered seem to reflect this. I'm struggling to reconcile this seemingly conflicting information...

Oops.  The webpage cut out part of my response.  Right after I wrote

Hacer + Infinitive, the second paragraph contains;

and here I quoted from the lesson:

     .."There is a tendency to use indirect pronouns me,te,le,nos,os,les when the verb in intransitive. However, if the verb is transitive, we usually use direct object pronouns me,te,lo,la,nos,os,los,las.

That's where I asked if this is misprint, or is referring to common mistakes that we make?

  The remainder of my comment got posted correctly.  Hope that my points are more clear now.

In the lesson on using perfecto vs indefinido, above the "tip block", the term "El Preterito Perfecto" is used twice.  Probably the second use is an oversight.