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5,748 questions • 9,372 answers • 928,952 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,748 questions • 9,372 answers • 928,952 learners
Hi,
The main part of this lesson has no audio. Could you please fix this if possible?
(Aunque + the imperfect subjunctive in Spanish)
Thanks
Creo que no -Wouldn't this call the subjunctive (conozca) NOT the present indicative?
Hello, I'm trying to get a better understanding of when to use different constructions.
Specifically:
Si Amalia va al mercado, comprará pescado fresco.
Si Amalia fuera al mercado, compraría pescado fresco.
These two constructions express the same idea. How do we know which one to choose? Is our choice solely based on the probability of the action in the "si" clause?
Thanks.
Does the verb "costar" always take the preposition "a" when referring to the person OR entity upon which the cost is falling? Here, "los gobiernos" are not people or favorite pets, yet the personal a is apparently indicated.
there is a sentence in the notes where it says
'Hablo con ella cuando llega a casa. = I will speak with her when she gets home.'
Since this is a non general statement of using cuando, but a future specified situation, shouldn't we use subjuntive? there is a note on this. are is this the same thing but different point of view?
Hablo con ella cuando llegue a casa.
To me it seems like such a long process for gustar to become "natural".
I literally have to parse every gustar sentence so that the pronoun tells me who is being liked, the verb then tells who is being liked (not who is doing the liking!):
me gustas = by me you are liked = I like youte gusto = by you I am liked = You like meEven though the pronoun-object at the beginning tells who is doing the liking, that becomes the object in English. So, the verb ending confirms what the subject really is . . . Is there any easier way or does ease of use eventually come with familiarity?Forgive me. The lesson explains this very clearly, but I'm still having trouble wrapping my head around the idea that there is absolutely no difference in meaning at all between the use of el indicativo and el subjuntivo with quizá and tal vez. I had read elsewhere a lengthy discussion about how these two always triggered the subjunctive and a lo mejor always used the indicative. Most examples I've encountered seem to reflect this. I'm struggling to reconcile this seemingly conflicting information...
Also, would "va a darte" also be correct?
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