Spanish language Q&A Forum

How exactly do we use this as it means "Curiosities" as well!!

I heard some intresting facts about you.

He oído algunos curiosidades de ti.

Is it okay to say this?

This rule does not work with amable.  If you do an exercise on superlatives with a question on "amable" before you read the lesson on -co, -go, -ble, and -z endings you will make a mistake. Perhaps this lesson should should point out that -ble endings  are an exception.  

Of course I will always remember the rule now after spending some time trying to discover why  "amablísimos" was wrong.

Estoy confusado con el uso de gran fogata en vez de fogata grande, por su leccion, position of adjectives in Spanish, dice que gran/grande antes del pronombre significa Great, y despues Big/large. Es esto un Great bonfire, or a Large Bonfire? Puede corregir mi pregunta, gracias de antemano

I understand it grammatically or literately. What I am trying to figure out is what the semantics is. The sentence seems breaking the semantic chain of the text. What is the author trying to tell us?

Just want to remind people that we use the infinitive when we have the same subject in both clauses.

Voy para la casa de mi amigo.  Is the use of para in this case particular to Spain?  IN Mexico and New Mexico(where I live) I'm pretty sure the sentence would use the prepossition "a" as in Voy a la piscina.

how can Spanish be the second most spoken language in the world? Sure, China is probably # 1 but just the population of the U.S.A. alone at more than 400 million is greater than all the native hispanohablantes. Add in Australia, South Africa, England, Scotland and a few other countries and 2nd and 3rd place must be very close.  Almost every country conducts business in English so there are a lot of English as a second language speakers. Am I missing something?

Good morning.

What is the difference in meaning between "Poder + estar + infinitive" vs "poder + infinitive"?

I think I've managed to wrap my head around how the passive works in a basic sense, but I'm wondering if anyone can offer, or refer me to, any guidance on WHEN to use different passive/impersonal forms, or how the nuances change? I know this is a rather broad question, so I'll try to narrow it down to a couple examples:

When is it prefered to use the true passive versus the se refleja form? for example, I was reading an article that said "las piedras habían sido extraídas de rocas que se formaron hace miles de millones de años." Here we have two different forms used in the same sentence! Could the writer have instead said "las piedras se habían extraído de rocas que fueron formado"--or some other combination--and if so are there different nuances?! Is one simply more formal? Or is there another specific reason the se pasiva wasn't use for one but it was used for the other? 

Also, I know this is a lot at once, but I'm struggling to grasp how the use of the passive with "se" differs from the use of the "ellos" impersonal construction. For example, if a house is under construction down the street, would you say "se construye una casa" or "construyen una casa" and if both are equally valid, how are the nuances different? And are there cases where one is possible but the other isn't? For instance, I've often noticed that when the object of an action is a person rather than a thing the action is often not expressed with se--the ellos form seems to be the choice in some cases like "le robaron" (but not "se robó"?). And yet... we do have "se buscan secretarias"? I can't quite see what is going on here...

Mil gracias in advance for any help on any of these questions...