Always using the definite article with what you are good (or bad) atI have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
Si yo quisiera decir "the more people i meet, the happier i will be", ¿sería "Cuanta más gente conozca yo, más feliz seré", o "Cuanta más gente a la que conozca yo, más feliz seré?
In the section about no porque you say: "if the causal subordinate clause is negative, it allows both the indicative and the subjunctive (without changing the meaning)."
A says that no porque must be used with the subjunctive according to the Cervantes Institute, and you (Inma) seem to agree with him, saying: "with no porque you use the subjunctive."
I just did a Kwiz where "no porque era" was a correct option.
So, what is going on there? Can no porque take both the subjunctive and the indicative or just the subjunctive?
Hello, this is a more advanced topic but I've come back to review.
Why do we use the subjunctive in this statement:
Ustedes pueden comprar lo que quieran.
Thanks.
What an explosion of vocabulary! Does the average hispanohablante use such an extensive vocab? Really good audio. thanks again, I enjoy every one of them . . .
I have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
I had searched for “Subjunctive” and came across something entitled “It’s complicated explaining the Subjunctive”. It seemed to be what I was looking for, so I clicked on it. However, I was taken to a lesson on facíl/difícil. Can you correct the link? Basically, I’m trying to mover beyond the long list of situations requiring the mood, and understand the underlying principle(s). Somewhere I saw an article making a distinction between the informational and the intentional. Would you have any references covering this question? Thanks very much. John Nolan
i am having a hard time knowing which preposition to use ("of the", "by the", "from the", "to the", et al)
Not to mention which indirect object pronoun goes before the other (She gives it to him in the morning "Ella se lo da por la mañana")?
hi team,
I have some questions.
´Es muy agradable porque la vuelta al frío es mucho más amena de esta manera.´ why is mucho being used instead of muy?
I thought that it will be used to describe ´amena´, an adjective.
´que ocurre a finales de septiembre ´. why is finales the plural being used and without articles ´los´?
Thanks in advance.
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