Always using the definite article with what you are good (or bad) atI have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
Just did this lesson and saw the word "cross". Although it does make sense in old English and some people will still understand the meaning, it is definitely not a word that is used a lot among English speakers today. I think "angry" would be a better word and would reduce the likelihood of someone not understanding what it means.
to add :
"doctor/a" for doctor
"supervisor/a" ; "gerente/dirigente ; manager (voz inglesa)" for manager/supervisor
"representante" for representative, agent, manager
I think the cave that we were going to see pasada mañana is as far from the speaker as from the listeners, and it is far. Caves are usually somewhere outside of a city. So I used aquella and even after I read the lesson I i think that it was the correct answer.
How can I have one practice dictation every day?
"los adultos les dan caramelos, monedas o aceptan el trato"
Did you intend "aceptan el truco" ?
I believe the accent on "ecónomica" is incorrect. Shouldn't it be "económica"? Also, in many of these exercises it is very difficult to discern when a sentence ends versus when there is a pause based on voice tone.
Pati Ecuamiga
¿Podemos decir también: “No hay baile en el mundo más español que un pasodoble”? Entiendo que no es exactamente igual pero significa lo mismo, ¿no?
Hello, I'm trying to get a better understanding of when to use different constructions.
Specifically:
Si Amalia va al mercado, comprará pescado fresco.
Si Amalia fuera al mercado, compraría pescado fresco.
These two constructions express the same idea. How do we know which one to choose? Is our choice solely based on the probability of the action in the "si" clause?
Thanks.
I have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
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