Spanish language Q&A Forum

Would it be correct to use Porque at the start of a sentence....e.g. instead of

Como estoy enfermo, no voy a ir al trabajo hoy.

Porque estoy enfermo, no voy a ir al trabajo hoy

These seem to have similar constructions for similar meanings (interim completion of an action that may continue). Is there a distinction between them I'm not getting? 

His family's situation saddens them. : ___ la situación de su familia.

How to say "something bores/annoys/saddens you"

La respuesta para esto es "les entristece" pero pensé que familia es singular?  Porque no es " le entristece"?

Gracias.

¡Hola!

Could you please provide me with Spanish equivalents for modal structures of probabality:

-Must/might/may/could + be (+ V-ing);

past probabality:

-Must have/might have/may have/could have + past participle (+ V-ing);

and their negative forms

Thanks in advance

Regards,

Alexander

"¿Tú traes a tus padres a la graduación?"

Where do you put the subject pronoun in sentences?

Before or after the verb?

In this sentence, I see it before the verb, but sometimes it is after the verb.

This seems like a completed action, or at least a completed period of time:  

Él no veía nada antes de la operación.

Why do we use the imperfect here?

Thanks.

Why do you not use the plural form of 'hay' when the subject 'muchas cometas' is plural?

He visto = present perfect that is not finish still in today continuing. Why in above translate do say to as mean  that saw that is v2??