Always using the definite article with what you are good (or bad) atI have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
Oh, si la vida fuera tan simple y perfecta...
No es lo mismo ver una película en cine que ver una película en casa How do I say that 2 scenarios are the same ?
are both these correct
¿Recordáis esa canción?
¿vos acordáis de esa canción?
The instructions say to use "indefinido" but the indicitive mood examples use imperfecto. Also, the question asked on the quiz only has imperfecto and futuro simple as options. I went with imperfecto and it was marked correct.
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If the main clause uses a tense that implies a past action, for example El Pretérito Indefinido or El Pretérito Pluscuamperfecto, then the por si/por si acaso clause uses a past tense.
Le di el dinero que le debía por si acaso se me olvidaba después.I gave him the money I owed him just in case I forgot later.Nos pusimos las botas de agua por si el camino estaba muy enfangado.We put our wellies [US: rain boots] on in case the path was very muddy.Past tenses are confusing and these lessons do not have enough of an explainer. In this Idefinite Past, I see:
Ella hizo una tarta para mi cumpleaños.She made a cake for my birthday.
But, under the Present Perfect lesson, I see:
He hecho un pastel de chocolate.I made a chocolate cake.
There is not enough information to distinguish between the two forms. I do not see the difference. "I made a cake" and "she made a cake" are identical in format, yet different. If both answers are correct- after all, there are often several ways to say the same thing, I think that needs to be reflected here if that is the case.
Can you explain?
I have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.
A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.
My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".
Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".
The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.]. My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?
Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.
Regards,
Pati Ecuamiga
Puedes hablar y Dejan usar in the same sentence ? Te and Ellos?
I just did an exercise and 'No todavía me he vestido para la fiesta' was wrong. The correct answer was 'Todavía no me he vestido para la fiesta'. I don't understand the difference. Help please.
Also, would "va a darte" also be correct?
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