Same meaning without “se”?
- « Back to Q&A Forum
- « Previous questionNext question »
Shirley S.Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor
Same meaning without “se”?
María te habría prestado el dinero ________ en dos semanas. María would have lent you the money as long as you had given it back within two weeks.mientras tú se lo habrías devueltomientras que se lo hubieras devuelto. Hi, would the meaning be the same if “se” was omitted? With “se” does it actually mean “returned it to her”? Thanks, Shirley.
This question relates to:Spanish lesson "Mientras with past tenses in the indicative and subjunctive in Spanish (subordinate time/conditional clauses)"
Asked 2 years ago
Hola Shirley
You can omit the "se" and just say "mientras que lo hubieras devuelto en dos semanas"; I mean, this would also be grammatically correct, but it would be missing "to her" which is what "se" is there for. The thing is, even if we omit "se", the fact that the money is been returned to "her" is implicit/understood by the context, so you could drop it and the message will be the same.
But the function of that "se" is that of a "le" as an indirect object pronoun. Have a look here for le/les become se.
I hope it clarified it.
Saludos
Inma
Don't have an account yet? Join today
Ask a question
Find your Spanish level for FREE
Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard
Find your Spanish level