Spanish language Q&A Forum

Wouldn't Ellos vienen del cine mean They come from the cinema? It says "They've come"

The bot wants “para.” I can see how “para” works if the intention is to say they’ve scheduled their vacation to start at that time. But that’s not the intention that I get from the context. It seems more like this upcoming “puente” is a time period during which they’ll be on vacation and “por” is appropriate. 

In this sentence from the exercise: "Él es muy famoso, expone en muchas galerías y museos y tiene muchos premios."

The word "muchas" is feminine, but since it seems to include "museos" I was thinking it might be "muchos". Is it a rule that the first in a series determines the gender, or was this done to say "many galleries and (some) museums"?

Can you give advice/commands in Spanish with the conditional form of deber/tener que?

In this lesson I see:

If you like those earrings, you should buy them.

Si ellos son los responsables, deberían pagar.

If they are responsible, they should pay.

These are advice/commands. 

There is also the other lesson "Si [if] followed by present indicative + main clause [command/request/advise]".

What is the point then of this lesson?

If the word ends end a, then add mente.

If the word ends end o, then add ament

Este es correcto? 

Let's see if you folks can explain it in a fashion where it makes some degree of sense.  Because based on this, you are wrong.

Why can't we use 'ricas' in place of 'deliciosas'?

It seems like one of the quiz questions and the examples you give for past participles use the pretérito perfecto for what should be the pretérito indefinido as translated from English. Examples: we wouldn’t say I’ve written to my girlfriend if we wanted to say I wrote to my girlfriend or I’ve returned from work for I returned from work. Please explain why the perfecto is used in the statements and not the indefinido.