Cualquier v. Cualquiera v. Cualesquiera I am sure that I am missing something that is right before my eyes, but I am going to ask for clarification anyway.
The lesson states that "cualquier is used BEFORE a singular noun."
Further it indicates Cualquiera must be preceded by un or una + and comes AFTER a singlular noun.
Lastly it references the plural of Cualqiera: cualesquiera. This has no requisite precedent (un/una).
Therefore, please explain if there is an exception as apparent in the following:
"La Unión estará de CUALESQUIERA derechos de aduana." This test question has no article precedent (un/una) and CUALESQUIERA appears BEFORE the noun (derechos de aduana); that is, it appears to act more in line with the singular CUALQUIER. So the question is: Is CUALESQUIERA the plural of Cualquier and not the plural of Cualquiera. Thank in advance for your help and response.
In "solucionar," I wonder if "to resolve" or "to solve" would be a closer translation than "to fix."
This grading of this question appears to be an error on the part of Progress. Conditional Perfect is the answer specified, which is "no habríamos muerto" and is the answer that I provided The answer from Progress is given as "no hubiéramos muerto" and is Preterito Plumamperfecto Subjuntivo, not Condicional Perfecto.
Hola Inma,
I am much more “comfortable” with the alternative “se debe haber retrasado.” Is it not counterintuitive to add the reflexive pronoun to the verb haber?
Invariably we never put anything between the two verbs when using the pretérito perfecto but in this case we do. Is there a particular explanation / logic? I must be missing something!
Saludos. John
The question is “where is. “ not “is there” surely the answer is está but you marked this as wrong
¿Me ________ un café por favor?Could I have a coffee please?(HINT: Conjugate the usted form of "poner" in El Presente)
I am sure that I am missing something that is right before my eyes, but I am going to ask for clarification anyway.
The lesson states that "cualquier is used BEFORE a singular noun."
Further it indicates Cualquiera must be preceded by un or una + and comes AFTER a singlular noun.
Lastly it references the plural of Cualqiera: cualesquiera. This has no requisite precedent (un/una).
Therefore, please explain if there is an exception as apparent in the following:
"La Unión estará de CUALESQUIERA derechos de aduana." This test question has no article precedent (un/una) and CUALESQUIERA appears BEFORE the noun (derechos de aduana); that is, it appears to act more in line with the singular CUALQUIER. So the question is: Is CUALESQUIERA the plural of Cualquier and not the plural of Cualquiera. Thank in advance for your help and response.
Hello,
I am reading a fairly reputable bilingual version of Sherlock Holmes. On one sentence it says 'Iba vestido discretamente con un traje de mezclilla de lana....'
The translation (and my own reading of the context) suggests that this means 'He was discretely dressed....'
But if that's the case why have they used 'iba'? Is that incorrect? The man was not 'going to do' anything. He just 'was'. My searching online and using Google translate suggests that only estar (or possibly ser) in the past tense are valid here, not ir.
Thanks!
In answering this question, I used "excepto por". The lesson doesn't cover this option, but I have seen it in written Spanish.
Except for the white one, all the t-shirts are cool.
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