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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,945 questions • 9,714 answers • 988,164 learners
For the sentence:
Ustedes quisieron reservar en este hotel.
Do you mean that *ese* is used when both conditions are true or just one?
“ese, esa, esosand esas are translated as that and thoseand they all refer to:1. objects/people that are near the listener (not the speaker)
2. objects/people that are far from the speaker (medium distance)”
Hola Inma,
I couldn't find the link for the lesson you referred to in your reply, despite doing a search here.
"Do we use "iba" to show intention?"
Could you please give me the link. And Happy New Year!
Thank you,
Nicole
Can you describe in what general contexts these would be used?
Are they interchangeable or are meanings slightly different depending who you’re talking to? Example such as when talking to children.
When there is no preceding noun, is there a way to use cuyo, cuya?
Por ejemplo: Whose book is this?
Can you use cuyo here, or must you resort to "¿De quién es este libro?"
The word "any" can have a nuance of uncertainty.
"We opened our doors to those who wanted to come in."
--> We opened our doors to anyone who wanted to come in.
"People who booked in advance may go to this desk."
--> Anyone who has booked in advance may go to this desk.
It's not always appropriate, but could help sometimes.
Several of my answers in several tests are misrecorded. I answered one way and it says I answered something else. What's going on?
Also, you should have explained that capitalizing, punctuation and accents must be correct. I was marked wrong for not putting a period at the end nd not capitalizing at the beginning. I don't mind but I would like to have known before i took the test.
Es lo mismo igual que/ tan como, se asemejan y se pueden utilizar.
Tan rojas como las cerezas/ rojas igualnque las cerezas, es el mismo significado, e. El mismo tiempo.
There is a hole in your explanation.
You say:
"In sentences where the indirect object is represented by "a + pronoun", and it is at the beginning of the sentence...."
but you do not explain what happens if "a + pronoun" is at the end of the sentence.
Is the indirect object pronoun required or optional in that case?
eg: Can "Me lo ha comprado a mí." be written as "lo ha comprado a mí."?
Regards,
Fred.
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