Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi, in this exercise, Lola 'odia a los gatos' but I think that Danny "odia los perros",  in Lola's translation. 
Is there a difference in whether the personal 'a' is needed in each case?  I weighed it up as - it is a definable person/pet? and I opted for 'not' using personal a because they hate dogs/cats in general. Hmm, but then again, they are sort of talking about their own pets?
Then there's the question of 'odiar' being clearly a strong feeling... but not exactly a strong affection.
Please help!

cheers, 

In this sentence from the exercise: "Él es muy famoso, expone en muchas galerías y museos y tiene muchos premios."

The word "muchas" is feminine, but since it seems to include "museos" I was thinking it might be "muchos". Is it a rule that the first in a series determines the gender, or was this done to say "many galleries and (some) museums"?

in one of the examples,

Verás, el chico se va a enfadar y va a coger y le va a dar un puñetazo.

You'll see, the guy is going to get cross and he's going to go and give him a punch.

where does 'se va + a' comes from? is this irse with other meanings?

Could you direct me to the appropriate lesson?

thanks

Hola Inma,

I don't understand the use of subjunctive here:  "Nunca hubiera pensado". Why not había pensado ?

Un saludo coldial

Ελισάβετ

Mi madre no piensa que yo vaya a terminar el curso de fotografía.My mother does not think I will be able to finish the photography course.
“…vaya a terminar..” means …going to finish…” It does not mean “…be able to finish…” but, hey, I may be translating too literal?

Why is it cárie

For "I will get my nails shaped" we were told to "use the construction for 'to have something done'" - so [following your guidelines for sentences of that type] I put: "me daré forma a las uñas", but this was incorrect. However, "*le* daré forma a las uñas" was among the options allowed?

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