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6,109 questions • 10,005 answers • 1,050,823 learners
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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,109 questions • 10,005 answers • 1,050,823 learners
fue reina de Castilla, Aragón y Navarra.
Here's the hint we gave you:Castile = Castilla, Aragon = Aragón, Navarre = Navarra, don't put any article in front of "queen", use El Pretérito Imperfecto
I understand that “vestir” needs to be used because it is a transitive verb requiring a direct object, but why is “se” used which I believe would indicate that it is a reflexive verb?
Is it okay to use one of your sentences in my Cantonese and Mandarin language learning video? I want to show repetition of words in different languages and would like to use your: Lo que se dice dolor dolor no tengo. If you're okay with my using your sentence, I will of course credit you and have a link to your website. If you want to see what my videos are like before you make a decision, they're at: https://www.youtube.com/user/notnowigottago
I'm confused why the answer for #10 is cierto when the translation is "some/a bit" and not "certain."
I think the cave that we were going to see pasada mañana is as far from the speaker as from the listeners, and it is far. Caves are usually somewhere outside of a city. So I used aquella and even after I read the lesson I i think that it was the correct answer.
Hola Inma,
Having read your reply to David I'm still a bit lost. Many of the phrases were translated in the past tense for example "We lit the fireplace" and "we sat in front of it" etc but all took the pretérito perfecto because they occurred today "Hoy". However, "We loved seeing how the firewood was consumed" was the only phrase given in the pretérito indefinido and expanded in the imperfecto.
There must be something about the phrase that calls for this construction. Can you give me a pointer?
Saludos. John
No me gusta anotarme a mí mismo en la prueba de audición. Es una pérdida de tiempo. Deberías eliminar esa característica.
Forgive me. The lesson explains this very clearly, but I'm still having trouble wrapping my head around the idea that there is absolutely no difference in meaning at all between the use of el indicativo and el subjuntivo with quizá and tal vez. I had read elsewhere a lengthy discussion about how these two always triggered the subjunctive and a lo mejor always used the indicative. Most examples I've encountered seem to reflect this. I'm struggling to reconcile this seemingly conflicting information...
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