Spanish language Q&A Forum

I just missed this question:

¿Viajan ustedes ________ placer? Are you travelling for pleasure?

I chose "para" because I read "for pleasure" as indicating purpose. The endorsed answer is "por"; apparently I'm supposed to read "for pleasure" as an originating cause.

Looking at the examples here, the most relevant would seem to be:

Va a estudiar medicina por seguir la tradición familiar.
She is studying medicine because it's family tradition.

It seems to me, you could also use para here, with a different meaning:

Va a estudiar medicina para seguir la tradición familiar.
She is studying medicine to follow the family tradition.

Here it's pretty easy to tell them apart because they differ in English. With

Are you travelling for pleasure?

... I guess I don't even know what "originating cause" means in this example. It's because you wanted to obtain pleasure, right? That seems to me like a purpose.

If the originating cause were a noun ("amor", "los niños"), or a pre-existing state/action ("ser el primo"), then it's pretty easy to see it's an originating cause as opposed to a purpose. But for a verb that seems to relate to future action, I don't know how I would know.

Any guidance?

From what I understand, statements of emotion almost always trigger the subjunctive. Are there exceptions for past events with cuando? "I was happy that he came" gives imperfect subjunctive whereas "I was happy when he came" gives preterite.

If this is a rule, is it more general than cuando?

Shouldn't it be 'casas colgandas?' since it is used as an active form as in english 'hanging'?

Your sample answer is “nosotros nos llamarse …… “ but you mark it as an incorrect answer in the quiz 

Preferir... que... just means: prefer... than... .Doesn't it?

Preferir... en vez de... means: prefer... rather than.... Why? I don't understand.

Thank you so much

I understand when the pronoun replace a thing use Los or Las, lo or la but the quiz is using Los to replace a miguel y a Jose.  is the hing that an artricle is in front of the names

With: "Both rivers, the Amazon and the Orinoco, and their respective basins", why does Amazon get pluralized to "Amazonas"? I've seen that the masculine is "el Amazonas" and the feminine is "la Amazona". Why is that, please? I'm wondering about the use of "el río Amazonas" versus "la selva Amazona" and "la selva Amazonica".

How does "se nos" change the meaning of "Uno de esos ríos que enseguida viene a la mente" -v- "Uno de esos ríos que enseguida se nos viene a la mente".

And the  use of "ello" . . . does "ello" not mean "it" or "that"? Is the use of "ello" as "this" merely the uneducated English useage where "this" and "that" and their appropriate relationships to time and place become misused? : "An example of that is Caño Cristales, a natural sanctuary."

And why the use of the future tense "existirán en otros lugares del mundo"?

Does ¨reírse de¨ just means laughing at someone with ¨mockery¨ meaning, or it has another meaning?

Thank u so much

How do you do the upside down question mark?