Spanish language Q&A Forum

Why  not me gustaríá ser feliz en España ?

Hello, in another context, I have come across the expression: 
No le di la mano hasta que no supe su nombre.
Would it also be correct, and have the same meaning, to omit the second "no" ?
And, in the 3rd example on this page, could one also say: 
No vas a salir de casa hasta que no recojas tu habitación.
? 

thanks!

It seems to me that telling someone else that their own  car works beautifully would indicate that the knowledge is shared and thus subjunctive (funcione) but that was marked incorrect. Please clarify.

I tried to use SpanishDictionary to translate tender and it didn't see it as a Spanish word. However, DeepL translated it as "clothesline" when I included it with a list of words (probably a DeepL bug). It translated "tender la ropa" as "tending the clothes". DeepL doesn't translate tender to an english word either. Also, the speaker sounds like she is saying "pender la ropa". I don't hear the "T".

Can you help me with this?

¡Saludos a todo allá!

Vince

In English, we often express the imperfect tense (a past habitual action) using the modal "would":

When I was young, I would eat sugar.

I can't find examples of the Spanish equivalent:

Cuando era joven, comería azúcar.

But just using the Spanish imperfect seems like it might be wrong:

Cuando era joven, comía azúcar.

... seems to translate literally as "When I was young, I was eating sugar", which doesn't seem to clarify that it was a habitual action rather than a one-time thing.

So, how would you say "When I was young, I would eat sugar" in Spanish?

The answer for "the test results" is singular.   But shouldn't it also be plural?  There could be many results for one test.

Hola Inma,

Please could you advise me?

When speaking casually as in the conversation here, is it generally more common to use 'estar' than 'sentir' regarding 'to feel'?

Gracias :)

I wrote "las velas son tambien ..." but the correction answer was "la velas tambien son ...". Upon re-listening to the recording various times, I feel pretty certain the readers say "las velas"; moreover it is following by "son". Did I hear wrong? What is the reason for the use of "la" and not "las" with "velas"?

Sinceramente,

Pati Ecuamiga

Sorry, i understand that hacia is sort of correct, only the accent is missing.