Spanish language Q&A Forum

Two sentences from today's lessons for me:

1. ?Vosotras pudisteis reservar ese hotel tan barato?

2. Lo he visto a él primero, y después de ella.

In both sentences, the accented stress on the recording is on the last syllable of the last word. I like to listen to all the sentences without looking and make sure I understand what is said.  This pronunciation fools me every time.  Why is it not on the penultimate syllable?  Is this regional?

Dear Kwizteam,

I noticed that this construction places a comma before 'que' but not before 'porque'.  In English, if the subordinate clause follows the independent clause, there is no comma.  In Spanish, does this depend on the type of subordinate conjunction used?

Regards.

It seems to me that telling someone else that their own  car works beautifully would indicate that the knowledge is shared and thus subjunctive (funcione) but that was marked incorrect. Please clarify.

I have a comment about the following:

-Ayer tomamos una decisión. -Habréis tomado una decisión, pero el problema surgirá de nuevo, estoy seguro.-We took a decision yesterday. -You may have taken a decision, but this problem will come up again, I am sure.I have checked a lot of resources (people I know, as well as reliable British English online resources), and the correct phrase with "decision" is "to make a decision."  Thus, it should be:  "We made a decision yesterday."  and "You may have made a decision but ..."  Thank you.

Not a question, but I think a much better way to put this would be ú -> ue, meaning the "u" becomes "ue" when stressed. That holds across all tenses (also for voseo) and needs no special cases at all (assuming the usual ge -> gue to keep the g sound from getting mangled). Turns it into a single simple fact to remember.

Hola,

Is it possible to convert this structure into the past tense, as if I was telling a story in the continuous past:

Hacía tres meses que Nuria vivía en California.

Or does this structure only work in the present?

Gracias,
Stuart

Hello,

Why should you use the imperative in the conditional if the present tense suffices?

In this lesson it is taught that you have to use the imperative in the conditional if you want to give advice.

However, in the other lesson "Si [if] followed by present indicative + main clause (present tense/future tense)" there are also sentences that give advice without using the imperative.

Si te gustan esos pendientes, deberías comprarlos.If you like those earrings, you should buy them.

Why is it rey del vino instead of rey de vino?

To enjoy? Do you mean disfrutar?

Desgustar is not in my dictionary.