Spanish language Q&A Forum

Luis y yo no hemos roto ________ nos hemos dado un tiempo para pensar.

Luis and I haven't broken up but we gave each other some time to think.

I don't understand why this sentence doesn't use pero. Doesn't it make a contrast or limitation to the idea expressed in the previous clause?

Dying one's hair is something which maybe be done oneself or by professionals. Am I to understand that the construction of a sentence about hair dye is the same regardless of whether one does it to oneself or has it done by professionals? Are we left to infer which is the case based on how good the resultant hair looks? 

I suppose this is similar in English wherein someone might observe "you cut your hair" as readily as "you got a haircut" but with rare exceptions (thinking of my brother circa age 4) intend to imply even in the first case that you yourself cut your own hair. 

Puse solo la mitad de la harina en el bol.

I only put half the (quantity of) flour in the bowl.

Ella tiene el doble de hermanos que él.

She has twice as many siblings as he does.

Why is it de LA harina, but not de LOS hermanos? Is the definite article always skipped after doble de? There was a quiz question for "________ tiempo" meant to be filled with doble. Would it be "el doble de" or "el doble del"? 

un paseo muy bonito al lado del mar. - can i say 'junto al mar' instead of al lado del mar? 
Después, voy a ver el Capitolio, un edificio blanco y grande. - do we always add 'y' between 2 adjectives and more even when the english translation does not?

Regarding this lesson, I do not understand how to choose the correct answer in the question when the lesson says that either gender can be used depending upon some vague circumstances. How can I, the speaker, determine which gender to use? This is a complete mystery to me. Please help.

Thank you, James