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5,473 questions • 8,320 answers • 803,910 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,473 questions • 8,320 answers • 803,910 learners
The title of the page is: forming el Imperfecto Progresivo con estar + gerundio but the next paragraph jumps to the Pretérito Imperfecto:
“In the case of El Pretérito Imperfecto, this is how the progressive tense is formed.”
Is the pretérito imperfecto and the imperfecto progresivo the same tense, just a different name?
Thank you.
Frankie
In the examples using past actions in the main clause, either the pretérito imperfecto or the pluscuamperfecto de subjuntivo are used. However, in the explanation it says the pretérito indefinido or the plusucmaperfecto.
It seems like one of the quiz questions and the examples you give for past participles use the pretérito perfecto for what should be the pretérito indefinido as translated from English. Examples: we wouldn’t say I’ve written to my girlfriend if we wanted to say I wrote to my girlfriend or I’ve returned from work for I returned from work. Please explain why the perfecto is used in the statements and not the indefinido.
Hello Inma, I don't think you understood my question earlier.
I was wondering why there isn't the "personal a" before each name in the example. There is only one a in the example with 2 names. Why isn't there 2 personal a, before each name? In all your examples, the sentences only have one person in each of your examples. I know I've seen before an A before each person/pet when there are 2 or more in a sentence.
Why is it "a Paula y Cristina" and not "a Paula y a Cristina" ?
Dear Kwizteam,
I noticed that this construction places a comma before 'que' but not before 'porque'. In English, if the subordinate clause follows the independent clause, there is no comma. In Spanish, does this depend on the type of subordinate conjunction used?
Regards.
Hi all,
I have been given one week free from this website. Will I be automatically charged if I don't actively cancel the 'free 7 days'??
I am trying to get my head around your example of probability needing the future tense:
Estoy muy ocupada así que llegaré sobre las doce o doce y media.
I am very busy so I might arrive at about twelve or twelve thirty….My question is on this basis how on earth anyone would know if I would arrive then or not, as surely if I use the future tense I’m saying I WILL arrive, not MIGHT ???Why is 'buena' used to describe the coffee as good? 'El café' is masculine so I don't understand why it wouldn't be 'El café colombiano...es muy bueno.'
Thanks in advance!
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