Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola Inma:

Are these phrases interchangeable?

         Lo+ Adv/Adj + que + verb

         Que tan /cuan + Adv/ Adj

Let's use test question #3 for these purposes:

         "¡____ es ese monumento!"

Of course the correct answer is:

          "¡Lo feo que es ese             monumento!"

With regard to this structure (Lo+ Adv/Adj + que + verb) the lesson states it is used to express surprise/admiration/disappointment about how something/someone performs an action or about what someone/something is like.

 The lesson for the structure (Que tan /cuan + Adv/ Adj) states that it is used to ASK about the degree or extent of a specific quality. Yet one of the example is not a question:

 "Carlos, muéstrale a Valentina qué tan bien bailas merengue." The phrase is being used in regard to a "specific quality," i.e., "... how well... ."

Question:for these purposes,  is not ugliness a specific quality. (a) if so, could we not also use the structure (Que tan /cuan + Adv/ Adj): ¡Qué tan feo  es ese monumento! Thank you in advance.

Hello. Would the following be acceptable as translation?
"ya que su vida se refleja en cada uno de ellos"

The test asked me for the correct verb to use with the sentence "Tu ***** la primero de la lista" -  this seemed to be a temporary thing, so I chose "estas". The right answer was "eres"  - i.e. a permanent state. 

I am confused - can anyone explain why use ser rather than estar in this case?

Hola forum y los expertos

Mi pregunta es sobre la frase 'Sin embargo, se les atribuyen aspectos positivos' y su alternativa 'Sin embargo, se les son atribuidos aspectos positivos'. Entiendo bien cómo se funciona la primera frase usado, pero no entiendo la alternativa porque confundido por la construcción gramática 'se les son atribuidos'. 

Me podríais explicar la construcción gramática 'se les son atribuidos' por favor

hi, why is this not considered subjunctive tense?

I have a question regarding the following excerpt:

"Both "¿Por qué no...?" and "Mejor no..." followed by El Presente are more frequently used in speech than their equivalent forms using the imperative:

Vayamos a la playa.
Let's go to the beach! (affirmative command)

No vayamos a la playa.
Let's not go to the beach! (negative command)"

My understanding is that whilst 'vayamos' is the negative imperative form of 'ir', 'vamos' is the affirmative form, contrary to the above.

Is there a situation where we would use the subjunctive 'vayamos a la playa' instead of the affirmative imperative 'vamos a la playa' to express the same command?

Many thanks,

Stu

If you translate "gustar" with "please" it becomes much easier to understand:

Le gustan mujeres: him please women - women please him - he likes women

It's not a question, it's a way to understand that - in this case - mujeres is the subject and decides the form of the verb

"All yo-go verbs in Spanish, i.e verbs where the yo form ends in -go in El Presente, take that same stem to form El Presente de Subjuntivo and keep it all the way through the conjugation. However, the El Presente de Subjuntivo endings are the same as regular -er and -ir verbs endings."

In your example: "Esa chica me parece de lo más insensata" you used a feminine adjective?