Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the tip it says - Unlike in English where as if is often followed by a past tense in the indicative, in Spanish como si can never be followed by a tense in the indicative or El Presente de Subjuntivo, or El Pretérito Perfecto Subjuntivo.  But there is a C1 lesson that is about using como si followed by the indicative.  Is this tip incorrect, or am I missing something?

I miss the rationale behind this. is this something to learn 'by heart'? as in, just learn these exceptions and you're good to go?... or is there some reasoning, eg. that without the accent it would be pronounced wrong.. this because of ?

In Mexico we do not use the vosotros form and I wrote you about it and you said you were working on not using it for Spanish in Mexico.  This lesson had half of the questions in this tense.  This is wasting my money and time to learn what I do not need.  Please give  your students a way to avoid counting these questions.  Thank you

Maybe just worth pointing out that in the sentences with "a" the preposition is used in two different ways: 

- as a "normal" preposition, for example, indicating motion: "El partido al que fui" 

- as a "personal a", where there is a direct object (Los cantantes a los que los fans adulaban) but where "a" is needed because the object is personal.

I think that's so, isn't it?

In the above example the English translation refers to “she”, but am I correct, that there is nothing in the spanish 

sentence that refers to a “she”? In fact, wouldn’t “le” normally default to the masculine?