Imperative Vs. SubjunctiveI have a question regarding the following excerpt:
"Both "¿Por qué no...?" and "Mejor no..." followed by El Presente are more frequently used in speech than their equivalent forms using the imperative:
Vayamos a la playa.
Let's go to the beach! (affirmative command)
No vayamos a la playa.
Let's not go to the beach! (negative command)"
My understanding is that whilst 'vayamos' is the negative imperative form of 'ir', 'vamos' is the affirmative form, contrary to the above.
Is there a situation where we would use the subjunctive 'vayamos a la playa' instead of the affirmative imperative 'vamos a la playa' to express the same command?
Many thanks,
Stu
Noté que el Día del Padre se escribe con mayúsculas en la escritura pero aquí no.
Sin embargo, lo que más me importa es que la empresa de la entrevista sea comprensiva y que me permitan hacerla en otro momento
Suggestion: To be consistent with other pages, and avoid confusion, I suggest you mark all the "i"s that are irregular in this conjugation.
The noun "búho" [= eagle owl] is an illustration of the way in which a 'silent h' has no bearing on whether or not there is a hiatus. At first glance, foreigners might think [incorrectly] that it should form two syllables *without* the need for a tilde.
I have a question regarding the following excerpt:
"Both "¿Por qué no...?" and "Mejor no..." followed by El Presente are more frequently used in speech than their equivalent forms using the imperative:
Vayamos a la playa.
Let's go to the beach! (affirmative command)
No vayamos a la playa.
Let's not go to the beach! (negative command)"
My understanding is that whilst 'vayamos' is the negative imperative form of 'ir', 'vamos' is the affirmative form, contrary to the above.
Is there a situation where we would use the subjunctive 'vayamos a la playa' instead of the affirmative imperative 'vamos a la playa' to express the same command?
Many thanks,
Stu
Present + desde hace ...
Hace ... que + present
------
Imperfect + desde hacía ...
Hacía ... que + Imperfect
is there a rule if adjectives are before or after the noun?
Tengo dos hermosas hijas OR Tengo dos hijas hermosas?
Hola forum y los expertos
Mi pregunta es sobre la frase 'Sin embargo, se les atribuyen aspectos positivos' y su alternativa 'Sin embargo, se les son atribuidos aspectos positivos'. Entiendo bien cómo se funciona la primera frase usado, pero no entiendo la alternativa porque confundido por la construcción gramática 'se les son atribuidos'.
Me podríais explicar la construcción gramática 'se les son atribuidos' por favor
Can't most of these time markers also be used in the present tense? Does the heading mean that if the past tense is used, then it must be the Imperfect? For people like me who are easily confused, could the heading be revised to clarify?
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