Spanish language Q&A Forum

I have reason to believe that my report of incorrect grading may have been incorrect itself all along. I have been copying and pasting the quizzes before submitting them and have seen that my reading of the questions has not been as conscientious as it could or should have been.

¡qué tonta!

I don't know, I take ONE DAY OFF and you change the look of kwiziq!!!

It looks lovely doesn't it, a nice refresh and a bit cleaner looking to my eyes.

Thanks

Shouldn't "Susana nos habia pedido..." translates not as "Susana has asked us...", but rather "Susana had asked us..."?

Is it incorrect to not use the contraction in Spanish.  Whereas, in English, it is NOT incorrect to not use the contraction.  For example, "do not" is as acceptable as "don't."  Is "a el" acceptable, or incorrect?  Thank you.

I've been reading a book in print and they have "este" (no accent) as the demonstrative adjective and "éste" (accent) as the demonstrative pronoun:

esta casa (adj.)
ésta es mi casa (pron.)

But I don't see that in this lesson. Is it out of date/RAE stuff or is it only included when ambiguous and my book is being overzealous?

Also, there was a really cool little fact in the book that said that "aquél" and "éste" are used in the same way that "former" and "latter" are in English. I'm still confused as to whether the accent is necessary or optional for pronouns, however.

Hello, in this sentence

"Mi madre usa el teléfono móvil para hacer llamadas o mandar mensajes."

During the challenge it appeared that both "hacer llamadas" and "mandar mensajes" would need their own "para", due to the way in which the sentence was broken up.  I can see now in the full text that "in order to" applies to the sentence "make calls or send mesages" but in the challenge I added a "para" for each sentence.

Is it just me or could this be tidied up?

Thanks

Here, designed by Gaudí is POR but in the Rioja tourist office exercise :luxurious Marqués de Riscal Hotel whose design is by Frank Gehry 

POR is not accepted. What should I note as the important difference?

At first glance, I thought efectivo is an adjective (meaning effective) but it actually means cash. Is there an obvious ending to nouns in spanish like there is in english?

I was directed to this (very useful !) lesson - i.e., Using tener + past participle to express the completion of an action (perífrasis verbal) - from a C1 writing exercise ["Charity Kings' Parade] - to explain the structure of this sentence: "Tengo pensado llevar un paraguas". < This is actually a bit different from the examples given in the lesson, because it is not a noun which we "tenemos pensado"; instead it is the verb "llevar" … [so no noun-agreement is required? - i.e. would we still keep the participle "pensado" unchanged if we said "Tengo pensado llevar mis botas de goma"?] … Thus, it might be useful to add, to the lesson, an example along these lines, i.e., where "Tengo pensado" is followed immediately by a verb.