Spanish language Q&A Forum

"A new Reference Grammar ..." by Butt and Benjamin discusses Spanish verbs which can be followed by an infinitive instead of the subjunctive - even when the subjects are different  in the two halves of the sentence, e.g. persuadir, ayudar, enseñar, [+ preposition 'a']. The authors suggest that "pedir" may be starting to move in that direction (mainly in Latin America, where rules are perhaps more relaxed than in Spain, particularly in conversations?) In addition, the infinitive construction with 'pedir' seems to be creeping into casual journalistic style, especially in headlines.

Qué semana te vas de vacaciones?

What week are you going on vacation?

There are 52 weeks in a year.

Apparently, 52 is a large enough universe to use Qué and not Cuál.

If you wanted to say:  What day of the week is today?....

would you say Qué dia de semana es hoy? or Cuál dia de semana es hoy?

There are 7 days in a week.

Is 7 a small enough number to use Cuál? or....

Are you asking for a definition of the day and therefore Qué?

Hi, if I want to say he is one of the nicest people I know - es uno de las personas más agradables yo sé, is this correct? I am asking this because I'm confused whether you can use uno and a feminine noun like personas and vice versa in the same sentence because all of the examples do not have this sort of example.

Why is it: 

Esta oscuro, esta sol, esta hublado,esta nevando,

 but 

hace calor, hace frio,hace viento ?

So this lesson explains that imperfecto can be thought of as currently happening, while the indefinito is something that happened in the past. But then in the lesson that compares the two with "time markers" it says the opposite. Imperfect is meant to indicate something "used to" happen. Seems like a contradiction. Actually the more I try to understand this topic the more it seems like the type of thing I should just try to memorize first, and then try to wrap my head around it much later. 

I think I remember from my high school days that saber has a different meaning than "to know" in one of its tenses, I think one of the past tenses has a different meaning when translated to English but I'm not sure. It might have been for a negative construction of saber, to mean I don't remember rather than I don't know. I haven't come across any grammar rules that mention this since high school, but I would appreciate it if someone could help me out with this. Thanks

When do you use cada & when todo? I know they're interchangeable, but is that the case always?

¿Dónde_____una floristería, por favor?

I answered "está" but it's saying it's "hay" even though the examples shown in the lesson show

¿Dónde está el parque?

Why was I incorrect?