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5,991 questions • 9,792 answers • 1,007,282 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,991 questions • 9,792 answers • 1,007,282 learners
Could I add to haber le avisado: a ella?
Hi,
The translation given for the above sentence is 'They are saving money in order to buy a house.'
Money is not mentioned in the Spanish sentence, so has it been included in the translation for completeness or because it is inferred because something is being bought?
On an unrelated topic, could you please explain why all Spanish greetings such as 'Buenos Dias' are in the plural?
I am really enjoying learning Spanish using this site. Others I have tried do not have the European pronuciation and sometimes use different words.
Thank you very much!
Best regards,
Colin
Please, what is the difference between usted, ustedes and vosotros?
Is ´"tecnologías nuevas" wrong? I thought nueva could be put before or after the noun?
I think I read in one of the lessons that decir was used to describe briefer statements, while contar was used when statements were more extensive or detailed. Would it also be correct to say "Me contó que solo era cuestión de tiempo..."?
"-¿A ________ vamos a ver esta noche? -A Luis y Gerardo."
I wrote 'quién' because I thought the questioner wouldn't necessarily know that they would be seeing more than one person. That answer was marked wrong. Would we normally use the plural when asking about an unknown number of persons?
EDIT: I just looked at the question again and see that there was a hint (which I managed to miss) about which PLURAL to use, but my question about which we would normally use still stands.
Hi,
I was wondering if and how this sentence would change if you were to use "para" and it comes to mind that perhaps if you used "para" then the sentence would have to change to "para trabajar" and not "para trabajo" ?
Or would there be 3 different meanings for each use: por trabajo, para trabajo, para trabajar (the latter meaning for the purpose of work, correct?)
Thank you. Nicole
This is in the lesson plan. But according to a chart in a textbook I have, if the verb in the main clause is in the present (parece), then the dependent clause would be imperfect subjunctive or present perfect subjunctive. So the correct Spanish for what is written in English above would be "Parece como si hayas tenido una pelea con alguien." And the correct English translation for the Spanish sentence in the lesson would be, "It looks as if you had had a fight with someone," which is not a normal expression. The Spanish should be "Parecia como si hubieras tenido ..." Please advise if I am incorrect and why. Thanks so much.
Hi,
Kwizbot Desde allí arriba, podíamos ver toda Barcelona.
You could also say: De ahí arriba, podíamos ver todo Barcelona
My question:
Can you use both “todo” and “toda” here, and if so, why?
Also could you say “ver todo a Barcelona”?
Thank you, Nicole
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