Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi all, 

I have been given one week free from this website.  Will I be automatically charged if I don't actively cancel the 'free 7 days'?? 

Indirect objects/pronouns are clearly necessary in certain cases such as when pegar is used to mean "to hit" someone/something as in "Le pega al hermano" for "He hits his brother." (Golpear takes a direct object as in "Golpeo la pelota y ella la golpea también" as in "I hit the ball and she hits it too.")  

However, when given the sentence (in Duolingo): 

"Did you see the goalie stopping all of their penalties"

why are the translations: 

1) "Viste al portero atajándoles/parándoles/deteniéndoles todos los penales" accepted

while the translations:

2) Viste al portero atajándo/parando/deteniendo todos sus penales aren't accepted?

I know that we use object pronouns in place of possessives with body parts most of the time and sometimes with clothing as in "Me pongo los guantes" for "I put on my gloves" but why #2 supposedly unacceptable (or is it acceptable also)?

Any help would be appreciated as I can find no clear explanation and most translators actually give #2 as the answer.

We would be wrong with you.

I would say "We would be wrong about you."

Hola Inma,

"haciendo la vida más fácil al usuario" and "costará a los gobiernos millones de dólares".

I wonder if it would be wrong to say haciéndole la vida más fácil al usuario and les costará a los gobiernos millones de dólares, instead. 

Saludos

Ελισάβετ

Dear Kwizteam,

I find it weird that the 'que' here is not 'qué'.  In all of the other sentences where the word is used in exclamations or questions, it needs tilde.  However, here, it does not.  Could you comment?

Regards.

Hi Inma, this is one of the most difficult things for me to grasp, especially in the body of a sentence, please could you put this near the top of your list for new lessons?

"

Hola,

Is there a lesson which develops this theme, and discusses when the definite article is used with the noun in the body of a sentence - and if there are times when this is not the case?

Thanks. John"

Suppose I wanted to say something like, "I wouldn't have minded if they got married, I was seeing someone else", or "I didn't care if the wrecked their's appetite with ice cream, I wasn't going to make dinner anyway" is there no combination of tenses that would admit the use o "por mí que"? 

It says above "if  the sentence has me, te, se, le, nos, os, les then no goes in front of these"

But what about direct  object pronouns los, las, lo, la?

In the quiz, I got the sentence

Antes de que tú digas nada, .... ( before you say anything )

Why is 'nada' here ? Can it be 'algo' ?

Another example from the other lesson is, though I don't remember the exact phase but it's like

No creo que hayan llegado todavía.

The original phase to be denied should be 'han llegado ya'. Again, why it changed to 'todavía' ?

I agree that whole expression has something negative, which hasn't happened yet. But I'm confused, because the phase in 'que' is totally affirmative.

So the expression in 'que' isn't independent from its use ? And how ?

When working through the exercise, "En la televisión anunciaron nuevas medidas económicas …" was accepted as correct, but in the final version [which gets read to us at the end], "En la televisión anunciaban nuevas medidas económicas" was preferred... > This is not really a criticism or a question, because a good case can be made for each of those^ tenses - but you might like to cover that point to reassure us.