Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the question"Pablo doesn't like surprise parties" isn't "surprise" an adjective and so the translation would be "Pablo no le gustan las fiestas sorpresas (in the plural).   I know this is not related to the lesson but ...

Thank you so much for these regional notes. Do you have any sense of whether the use of the European construction is confusing to LA speakers? Or vice versa? Or would the meaning still be easily understood?

Coma todo por favor
it's conjugated to the imperativo 

So this lesson explains that imperfecto can be thought of as currently happening, while the indefinito is something that happened in the past. But then in the lesson that compares the two with "time markers" it says the opposite. Imperfect is meant to indicate something "used to" happen. Seems like a contradiction. Actually the more I try to understand this topic the more it seems like the type of thing I should just try to memorize first, and then try to wrap my head around it much later. 

Los niños, jugando en el parque, nos recordanban a nuestra infancia.

The boys, playing in the park, reminded us of our childhood.

The exceptions are both words that describe places of origin.  Is this a pattern or are these two examples that just happened to be place names.  I can see three possibilities:

1) When you have a place of origin adjective (from Spain, from Analusia) you always use gendered plural endings.

2) When you use gendered plural endings for adjectives ending in z or l you always use gendered plural endings

3) It's just a coincidence in the examples and neither 1 or 2 is a pattern.

Which one of these cases is closest to being correct?

Why does this sentence have "lo"? Doesn't dejaron todo mean they left everything?

Can you please tell me when to use 'eso' and when to use 'ese' or 'esa'.  In the sentence, 'Eso es un paraguas.' why 'eso' and not 'ese'?  And, is the usage of 'esto' similar?

Thank you.

Colin

Te apasionan los Ferrari pero no has conducido ninguno.

My question really isn't about "ninguno;" I love the explanation!

It's about "los Ferrari." Are brand names always singular, even when you're talking about all or more than one of them? For example, are these correct?

Me encantan los Toyota. Is the article masculine because "coche" is masculine and Toyotas are cars?

Me encantan mis/los Nikes. Is the article plural because "shoes" are always plural, or is it singular because Nike is a brand name?

Thank you!

The book is as good as the series.

Pienso que desde la serie es femenino, bueno debe ser buena?