Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi,

I came across the below question in the quiz on this lesson. Am I missing the part where “and she is affected by it” becomes important?

QUESTION: 

Choose the correct sentence expressing: "Her baby doesn't eat any fruit and she is affected by it."

CORRECT ANSWER: 

Su bebé no le come nada de fruta.

Other choices: 

The notebook information appears to be very poorly delineated on this subject. The answers in the micro-quiz seem to fly directly in the face of the BUT BE CAREFUL information given! If the person is selecting SOME of the ORANGES, according to the text the "some" should be alguna since "even if it refers to a plural noun, the pronoun is in the singular form." The lesson dictates appears to need a lot of work.

Notice how for all these verbs, the vowel -e- from the infinitive that is closer to the end of the word becomes -i- except in the nosotros and vosotros forms.

Listen to these examples :

Ha dicho eso para que nos sintamos mejor.
He said that to make us feel better.

No os sintáis obligados a venir.
Don't feel obliged to come.

No mintamos más.
Let's not lie any more.

Is the wording correct, should "except" be deleted here?  

Notice how for all these verbs, the vowel -e- from the infinitive that is closer to the end of the word becomes -i-   IN the nosotros and vosotros forms.

This is one of the questions that I think is poorly expressed in this lesson, and again is contrary to what your own "quick lesson" presents. My answer of "una poca simpatía" was marked incorrect, yet it is the more commonly used version, again according to your own "quick lesson." I do not see the point of frustrating students with information that they are unlikely to hear.

HI Inma 

I'm not sure why the answer for this is conjugated singular (ha gustado) & not plural (han gustado);

Siempre me ________ leer autobiografías de gente famosa.

Thank you.

Dijeron que nos pagarían las horas extra trabajadas cuando ________ el mes.

They said they'd pay our overtime when it was the end of the month.

terminase

terminaba

terminó

termine

I don't understand why this sentence fits this lesson. Surely there cannot be much uncertainty that there will be an end to the month. Wouldn't this make more sense in the indicative? 

For this question:  Es improbable que los niños ________ la puerta. These options show as correct:  hayan roto / rompieran.  I understand hayan roto, as the impersonal beginning signifies "subjunctive", and the event is in the past. However, I learned at a language school in Cuernavaca that present tense statements (es improbable) could only match with haber + participle, and that only past events (eg "era improbable" could match with imperfect subjunctive (rompieran). The teachers made a big deal out of that. However here it shows up as a legitimate option. Can you explain?  Thank you.