Spanish language Q&A Forum

Inma - Many thanks for this useful lesson.

I am wondering if it might be worth emphasising, at the beginning, that "-ar" verbs all form their gerund quite regularly. Is that true?

That could be reinforced with examples like pensar [> pienso] > pensando;

and (in your category 3): contar [>cuento] > contando.

and maybe even mention in your category 1 that crear > creando is quite regular - (i.e., with no 'y' inserted).

We do appreciate your hard work and dedication !

Hi, I'm, hopinh you can help out with this query -

In this sentence: "¡La casa va a estar preciosa!" we have 'estar' used, why isn't this 'está', or 'estaría', or 'estará'?

Thanks!

Hola,

I have just completed a test with the above sentence to be completed with an adverb.

I do not have a problem with the adverb but with this part of the sentence:

... no nos quedan más ...

Can you please explain how the above equals 'we have no more' in English?  I wonder why it is quedan and not quedamos.

Many thanks for you help.

Saludos,

Colin

To all of the teaching and development staff of Kwziq and Lawless Spanish:
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In the question "En el viaje ________ un niño atrás", the answer was 'se nos quedó'. Could you give a literal translation of this sentence because otherwise it seems like the verb agrees with the object of the sentence rather than the subject. I guess I'm asking for a way of translating quedar in my head so that even if it makes the English awkward, I can also keep straight subject and object (much like I can substitute "is pleasing" for gustar). 

Thanks! 

“Jacinta y yo sabemos donde es la fiesta”. I thought it was standard to say está when referring to location. Am I missing something about a circumstance to say “donde es”?

Hello,

In reading one of your  lessons on Prepositions, I saw "fiarse de" i.e: fiarse de algo,  Roberto, etc.

I was surprised that "de" is used here and not "a" for a person, or "en".

1) Could you help me understand why "de" is used here?

and:

2) Can these forms be used and if so, what would they mean? and if not, why not?

fiarse en algo

fiarse a algo

Thank you,

Nicole

can we say ha venido a quedarse instead of using para?

Why does 'I have a garden' translate as 'Tengo jardín'? How do you know when to omit the definite article?