Spanish language Q&A Forum

Why do the pronouns that refer to the grandparents collectively switch between "les" and "los" in the text? For example: "Los visito siempre que puedo y nunca les he visto tan felices en mi vida." 

"Tú ________ el primero de la lista." (You are the first on the list.)

I made a mistake on this one by using estar. My reasoning is it referred to a location (the first position on the list). It appears the answer you're looking for is to use ser, and that the recommendation is to treat the list and its contents as descriptive. 

Would this change if I said "You are the first in line?" Or should I still use the ser verb? Is it a description of a trait of the line, or is it a position that is relative?

Are these types of cases subjective? Or is it pretty common for everyone to use the same verb?

Why not "vamos a hacer" in the example. Is there a lesson I missed about this that you can refer me to?

Hola,

In this sentence, Gabriel was going to be helped financially by his parents

Gabriel decidió comprar el piso puesto que sus padres iban a ayudarle económicamente.

Why is Gabriel an indirect object, so ayudarle, as opposed to ayudarlo?

I'm guessing it is because there is a hidden direct object of money?

It's a bit hard for me to get my head around Gabriel being an indirect object because they help him, rather than help him with help (money in this case)!

Gracias,

Why is 'peli' not accepted in place of películas?

could you, please, explain why not fue un pintor? The action is completed, ya que está muerto.

Saludos

Ελισάβετ

Hola todos,
in the examples like Nuria has lived in California for 3 months, shouldn't it be: Nuria has been living in California for 3 months to express that it is still ongoing?
In the test I was similarly irritated with the sentence I have lived on a boat for 4 weeks, which I would translate as He vivido en un barco por 4 semanas, but the only option making sense was the one having the form explained in this lesson.
Of course I may be wrong, English isn't my first language.

Hola,

I just need to understand in this following sentence why 'le explicas' isn't used instead? 

Podrías hablar con la jefa y explicarle la situación.

Is it treated as following poder rather than hablar?

Gracias,

In the question "En el viaje ________ un niño atrás", the answer was 'se nos quedó'. Could you give a literal translation of this sentence because otherwise it seems like the verb agrees with the object of the sentence rather than the subject. I guess I'm asking for a way of translating quedar in my head so that even if it makes the English awkward, I can also keep straight subject and object (much like I can substitute "is pleasing" for gustar). 

Thanks! 

Tu novia y tú habéis estado comprometidos hasta este año.Your girlfriend and you have been engaged until this year.

The meaning is unclear to me — are they no longer engaged?  

Then, in my opinion,  the English should be:

..Your girlfriend and you.were engaged until this year, not have been. But maybe I do not understand what is being expressed in Spanish. In any case, the English sentence is not clear.