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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,962 questions • 9,749 answers • 995,397 learners
vegana por su novio. I put se ha hecho.
My sister has become a vegan for her boyfriend.How is this different from the example given with the use of hacerse?
Example given:Se ha hecho vegetariana después de ver el documental.She became a vegetarian after watching the documentary.
Is it because he changed (radically) for his girlfriend and not his (ideology) on his own accord ?
Could you please provide a list with the most common ones at the end of the lesson?
You make the distinction that todavía can be placed before or after the verb unlike in English, but I think it can be done in English as well. It might be a bit less common (or perhaps more poetic), but I can think of sentences where it could come after the verb still.
hi. Im a litttle confused as to when we use "fui" to represent the past, and say "i was" vs "estuve" vs "era" .... To say, for instance, "i was en Mexico" I can say both "estuve en Mexico" and "fui en Mexico", whats the actual difference between the two...
thank you, Elaine
Hi, Inma
I translated the sentence "it would be very difficult to determine it." into "sería difícil de definirlo", and the correct answer removed the "de".
But when I translated the sentence "that will be hard to forget for tango lovers" into "que será difícil olvidar para los amantes del tango." the correct answer asked me to add a "de" after "difícil".
I'm so confused now.
Saludos
Wenli
In the quiz question: "¿Crees que ellos me ________ ese favor?
Do you think they would do me that favour?" We're told to put hacer in the conditional. If the sentence had instead started "¿No crees que..." what would the correct tense be for hacer?
Foggy and sunny are both adjectives so why does one use hay and one use está?
Hay niebla
Está soleado,
Gracias
How can I insert Spanish accents when I answer the dictation questions?
Is there a rule that explains why the definite articles aren’t needed here even though mujeres and hombres are the subjects of the sentence?
Would you explain more clearly when one does or does not use "de" in this form? As far as I can extrapolate, if an infinitive is to follow, we use "de" but otherwise no?
Or is it optional in any instance?
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