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5,955 questions • 9,740 answers • 992,119 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,955 questions • 9,740 answers • 992,119 learners
In the test section it says: "Los profesores ___ con los padres de los alumnos"
I thought that should be 'charlaron' because it is an action in the past which has been completed but the system says it is 'charlaban'.
Please explain?
Hola, en el frase "Gregorio Rojo fue su primer entrenador", por que no es "era"?
Muchas gracias,
Dorit
The use of “te cansas” looks like reflexive use to me. However, when I consult the dictionary the use is described as pronominal use. Please help me with the difference between pronominal and reflexive use.
Este es el título del uno de mis lecciones bajo de sujeto, ¨Conjugate ver in El Pretérito Perfecto (present perfect)".
He lo tratado pero, me parece que es muy difícil a preguntar una pregunta en el forum en una moda que consigue para mi una respuesta.
Gracias, Jaime
Hi, I'm, hopinh you can help out with this query -
In this sentence: "¡La casa va a estar preciosa!" we have 'estar' used, why isn't this 'está', or 'estaría', or 'estará'?
Thanks!
Please could you explain the use of disfrutar and disfrutar de, in sentences eg. is it correct to say: las personas que me disfrutan son mis mejores amigos.
hi the Link to the wider lesson on this isnt working. When will it be available?
Im currently working on the idea that (in Spain) spaniards use the present perfect (when English would use the simple past) when there is a sense that the verb happened in the recent past, or otherwise related to the present in some way. e.g you SAW the film THIS week, we SAW your parents (maybe THIS morning), or they SAW the sunrise (last night).
is this right?
No entiendo por qué el Rey hizo eso. Él lo hizo porque quiso
Unless the Spanish have a definition of "conjunction" that differs from the one I've always understood, both "por qué" and
"porque" are both being used as conjunctions in those sentences. It is the sense of their use which differs.
Can these two uses be distinguished in spoken Spanish and if so, how?
Thank you! I also found a very good website for pronunciation, listed by diphthongs, etc at:
https://www.123teachme.com/learn_spanish/diphthongs_and_triphthongs
which might be useful.
Nicole
In the question"Pablo doesn't like surprise parties" isn't "surprise" an adjective and so the translation would be "Pablo no le gustan las fiestas sorpresas (in the plural). I know this is not related to the lesson but ...
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