Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi, I'm wondering if you can use this construction in cases where the "future time indication" is implicit.  For example:

    ¿Vas al concierto?

When both participants know that "the concert" is going to take place next week.  If that's not incorrect, does it sound more or less natural than "¿Vas a ir al concierto?" ?

Thanks!
Alan

I am a bit frustrated with this lesson.  I guess my question is this: with my limited (A1) knowledge of Spanish, how am I supposed to know "that sometimes the feminine and masculine forms are the same" when repeatedly the test gives adjectives I do not (yet) know in Spanish?  

For example, placid.  I do not KNOW how to say placid in Spanish, thus how can I know if I should use the feminine adjective form or simply add mente?  The assumption of adjective knowledge doesn't work unless, as is sometimes done in the test, you GIVE the adjective form in the test question; example: Los coches son rápidos: van rápidamente.   In this example test question it is easy to understand rápidos (masculine form) will change to the feminine because I can SEE rápidos!  The frustrates me to get wrong when it seems to be testing me more on knowing a large range of adjectives in Spanish more than the specific assignment of adding the "ly" form! I don't see my scores getting better based on the lesson given.

de las ciudades más bonitas de España

When would I use “en”?

I would translate this as "Take any dish."

Coge cualquier plato. 

I would translate this exactly the same way.

Under what circumstances would one choose to use either one?

Are these words indeterminate and/or invariable and what are the meanings or other examples of indeterminate and invariable?

If I wrote:

¿Puede venir cualquiera a mi fiesta? 

Can anyone come to my party?  Would that be incorrect?

"Le compré flores."

Does this mean:

I bought her flowers (for her)

or

I bought flowers from her

How do I make it clearer, unambiguous?

Thank you.

Could this be translated as "Let him (her, it) help you?

I wonder to know whether the second sentence need add ´´la´´ to indicate ´´the´´ meaning or not?  Thanks.

Nosotros todavía no salimos del trabajo.        /We haven't yet left work.

Juan todavía no salió de casa.      /Juan has not left the house yet.

When using de lo más with estar, specifically, is it preferred or more common to have the adjective agree with the subject, as distinct from when using ser for example? I noticed the specific example sentences using estar both have adjective agreement with the subjects. So I wasn't sure if this was supposed to be indicative or if it's just a quirk of having examples that were chosen at random, and I can't seem to find an answer anywhere else...