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5,619 questions • 8,965 answers • 871,179 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,619 questions • 8,965 answers • 871,179 learners
What if I want to use querer in el preterito indefinido, but I don't want it to be interpreted as tried or refused? Por ejemplo:
Yesterday, I wanted apples, but today I don't.
The action is complete, it requires the preterito indefinido, but I don't want to interpret the sentence as: Yesterday, I tried apples, but today I don't.
'Tis a conundrum for me.
The structure seems clear: a las dos horas de = within two hours of; a los tres años de = within three years of, etc. The question was this, though:
________, tuve que llamar al médico.
Within 2 hours of being sick, I had to call the doctor.My answer was: a las dos horas de vomitar, whereas the correct answer was a las dos horas vomitar. ¿Por qué?The yo example given sounds like quipo rather than quepo? Is that generally how it is pronounced? I noticed the yo is not standard and more like jo. Are these regionally differences?
According to Kwiziq the correct answer is "Debe de estar tomando café con sus amigas." Or are we supposed to understand the difference from the question and the answer?
I am a little confused with terminology. Are Preterite Indefinido and Preterite Perfecto the same thing? As others have highlighted, I am confused with the past perfect and preterite perfect.
Using esquiar as an example: I skied = Yo esquié; I have skied = He esquiado; I used to ski = Yo esquiaba; I have been skiing = Yo estaba esquiado. Am I wrong with these examples?
te recomendaría que exploraras las ruinas en la selva y disfrutar la naturaleza
In this phrase why isn't the second verb following recomendar also a subjunctive?
Also I'm not sure why we would say tesoro español o tesoro gótico but tesoro maya is invariable
Gracias
“Como”can be written with and without accent, it depends on whether it has a interrogative or comparative function.
I guessed this correctly but when I clicked on the explanation of past participle examples in Spanish it did not explain why it is escrita?
Can someone please explain?
You say in the notes:
"Sartén" is more often feminine than masculine, but both genders are correct.But in the most recent exercise I did, when the question was is "ese sartén" correct, given the gender of the noun, and I said no, my answer was marked wrong.
Is there an inconsistency somewhere?
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