Spanish language Q&A Forum

My CLAVE dictionary implies that the phrase "consist of ..." [in today's translation exercise "Thriving ecosystems in Costa Rica"] may be translated by "constar de ..." as well as by "consistir en ..." - but it implies that there is a subtle difference between them. If so, this might be worth mentioning?

Why is there a ‘por’ after pagar in the first example and not in the second?                           

No voy a aceptar que pagues por todo.

Just a suggestion, I was wondering if we could potentially include like a flashcard series equivalent where we can test new vocab we come into throughout kwiziq. So that we have the ability to review it after not coming across it for some time. 

Si quiero enviar a mi hijo a mi hermana, sí puedo decirle a mi mujer "Voy a enviarselo" pero no puedo decirle a mi hijo "Voy a enviarlete". Ambas oraciones son de forma verbo+enclítico de OI+enclítico de OD. ¿Qué hace que una sea correcta y la otra no lo sea? (Intento que se=hermana, lo=hijo, le=hermana, te=hijo.)

In this example: 

La familia de María está contenta.  María's family are happy. [U.S: is happy]

Está is singular, so wouldn't it also be translated as "is"?

Hola. Solo para que sepan... 

Esta pregunta apareció en el Quiz. Mi cuenta tiene la versión latinoamerica activada, y normalmente no vemos preguntas sobre conjugaciones de vosotros porque no la usamos. 

Es probable que ________ en el intento.It's possible that you'll die trying.(HINT: Using the "vosotros" form, conjugate "morir" in El Presente de Subjuntivo.)

I'm a bit confused on when to use hacia vs. para for "toward" a destination?  Two of the introductory examples in this section indicate para can be used for "to/toward".  One of these examples is "Vamos para la playa porque hay una fiesta".   Would it be incorrect to say "Vamos hacia la playa porque hay una fiesta"?   My sense is that "hacia" means just going toward an end point or destination, without implying an actual arrival or end point.  Is this the difference?  Thanks for clarifying.   

This is a quote from kwiziq that is supposed to be explanatory, but it does not suggest a rule to know which adjectives have this form of ending. How are we to know which adjectives have this irregularity? Why can they not just follow the regular formula?