Spanish language Q&A Forum

A quiz question says: "La palabra víspera tiene el tilde en la i"

Not relevant to the lesson, but I thought a tilde was the squiggle over the n (~), not the tick mark? Can it mean both?

Are there 2 adverbs cuándo and cuando? WordReference.com has both listed. I need an explanation on this for A1 beginner (me).

How does one determine whether to use "sido" or "estado" with haber in such instances as "I have been a good person..." or "I have been seen with ..." or "I have not been trying hard to..."?

Also, with regard to "he, has, ha....etc.", is this conjugation referred to as the present perfect indicative, the past perfect indicative (preterito perfecto), or both?

This was listed as B2, but required knowledge from C1 areas: Using dicho, dicha, dichos, dichas to say this/these (formal) and Using Spanish relatives el que, la que, los que, las que = the one/ones who/that (relative pronouns)

Note that in El Futuro Simple, only the 3rd person form habrá is ever used on its own and it means there will be.

I don't understand the meaning of this statement. Can you explain and/or give an example?

Buenas tardes.  I'm puzzled by this quiz and answer... Le olvidé = I forgot him; lo olvidé = I forgot about meeting him, ¿no?

Hola

Cual es correcta?

1. No fuimos nosotras quienes hicimos caer a esa mujer.

2. No fuimos nosotras quienes hicieron caer a esa mujer.

Cual es la regla? #3 con 1 plural y #4 con 3 plural.

3. Somos nosotros quienes podemos hacer la diferencia.

We're the ones who can make a difference.

4. Seamos nosotros quienes se hagan ricos con esto.

So it might as well be us who get rich on it.

Gracias de antemano

Hola hola!

I have been reading the message board and found a lot of opinions around this sentence

She has made many sacrifices for her children.

Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos.

There seemed different explanations for the reason why "por" was selected, one of which being an "intimate recipient". I initially liked this explanation and found it plausible. 

However, I continued reading and found the mention of "for the sake of".

She has made many sacrifices for (the sake of) her children.

Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por (el bien de) sus hijos 

Three questions:

1) Can you say "por el bien de" meaning "for the sake of"?

2) Can "por el bien de" be used in the above example?

3) Is it possible that in English "for the sake of" the (the sake of) can be omitted and likewise in the Spanish "por el bien de" the (el bien de) can be omitted?

If the answer to question 3) is yes. Perhaps, this explains and clarifies the use of "por" in the sentence.

Ha hecho muchos sacrificios por sus hijos.

Your thoughts would be much appreciated.

I feel trying to explain the por and para  debate is a difficult task and your help is genuinely appreciated   :) 

I have more questions though  ;)

This got me thinking about the  "for the benefit of":

He did it for the benefit of the company.

Lo hizo en beneficio de la empresa.

This could also be written in English as:

He did it for the company.

Lo hizo por la empresa.

I have two more question:

4) Are the following two sentences correct?

i) Lo hizo en beneficio de la empresa.

ii) Lo hizo por la empresa.

And, finally...

5) Do they have the same meaning?

I would be grateful if you answer the questions above and see if I have understood this use of por.

Many thanks,

Ryan

Why is QUERER in the subjunctive in the following sentence?    El hecho de que yo 

Hola.  Could you please explain why, in the following question, "todo aquel que" is a wrong answer?

________ vinieron el año pasado han vuelto este año.All those who came last year returned this year.(HINT: It refers to people in general both male and female)