Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,886 questions • 9,626 answers • 964,508 learners
I'll be right with you...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,886 questions • 9,626 answers • 964,508 learners
Why lo de que? Maria is a noun. Why isn't it lo de?
I looked at the comments regarding quería and querría . But I do not see anyone asking abut Quisiera as I translation for "I would like". Would that also be translated in the present.
Also, I thought that when the speaker says what she would like, that part of the sentence would not be subjunctive.Although, I think that when an English speaker says "I would like you to .. . ." as opposed to "I want you to..." the former is softer, I just have a lot of trouble with the subjunctive and to be sure I understand this part of it
how do I go to the next lesson? After I take my test and check my results I do not see anything except return to the lesson. In the lesson I do not see any way to go to another lesson?
With
Los que hayan reservado con antelación pueden ir a esa ventanilla.
The ones who booked in advance can go to that desk.
should the translations be can go to that window?
I have confusion about where in the sentence to place the adverb "mañana". For example, above it notes
"Cuando vayas mañana al mercado ... "
However, I'm confused as to why it would not have been "Cuando vayas al mercado mañana ..."
Please give some clarity.
Una dicción muy clara. Un audio excelente y un relato que chido.
Is there any difference between the conjugation of "pensar" and that of the other semi-regular "stem-changing -ar verbs" in a previous lesson? Just wondering why "pensar" was singled out for a lesson of its own.
Two of the examples use the pronoun "a". For example "¿Tú traes a tus padres...?" and "Ellos traen al perro...". Am I right in assuming that this only applies when there's a person or animal involved?
ln the present tense version of this lesson we learned that we could use the infinitive (sometimes) by dropping the "que". (The "sometimes" was not really explained, but I think one of the users may have clarified it in the comments.) Are we to infer from its omission in this lesson that we cannot similarly use the infinitive when the first clause is in the pretérito?
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level