Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hello, in this example linked to the lesson : So my question is when is it antes de and when is it antes que ? Is antes de only for temporal subjects (antes de la cena...) ? And is there also después que ? Thank you.

No es justo que vosotros antes que nosotros. (It's not fair that you'll die before us.) HINT: Conjugate "morir" in El Presente de Subjuntivo.

Hello!  I was always taught that "asistir" was a false cognate to "assist" (to aid/help) in English.  My understanding was that "asistir a" means "to attend," either attending an event/school, etc. or to wait on someone.  Can you please clarify whether "asistir" in fact can be used to mean "to assist"?  Thank you!

how do I go to the next lesson? After I take my test and check my results I do not see anything except return to the lesson. In the lesson I do not see any way to go to another lesson?

With

Los que hayan reservado con antelación pueden ir a esa ventanilla.
The ones who booked in advance can go to that desk.

should the translations be can go to that window?

My question from yesterday was poorly worded.  One sees "algo que" with most verbs as in "Tiene algo que declarar/hacer" but one sees "algo de" or "algo para" with "Tiene algo de comer/beber?" or "Tiene algo para comer/beber?" Most verbs seem to take "algo que" in translators when there is an infinitive afterward and certainly when there is a conjugated verb after "algo." Are "algo de comer/beber" and "algo para comer/beber" just idioms or set phrases?  If not, when does one use "algo que" vs "algo de " (which can also mean some or a bit of) and "algo para"?

I still don't understand why this is incorrect:

Ella tiene dos casas y los dos están en Miami.She has two houses and both are in Miami.

You use va a disfrutar. Should it have been van since you are referring to gente, multiple people?