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5,953 questions • 9,730 answers • 990,132 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,953 questions • 9,730 answers • 990,132 learners
¡Hola! Am new here .I have a problem with the placement of 'usted'.For example ¿Usted tiene nietos?and ¿Tiene Usted nietos? Are both of the sentences correct? When or in what context do you use Usted before the verb or after.
I'm not great at grammar in my own language and before I started learning Spanish I didn't even know what the subjunctive was. So I've learned it's a sort of feeling expressing doubt or IF something were to happen or wishing? I can't quite see how "we're going to sit where there is shade" fits in the subjunctive. Doesn't it suggest certainty? Or am I wrong about this?
For example
Ellos no saben cuándo van a llegar
Ellos no saben que lleguen?
Yo no sé cuándo van a llegar
Yo no sé que lleguen/llegarán?
They all have an element of doubt in which would suggest the subjunctive but there is a rule here that I am not understanding fully!
Thanks
Nick
In the lesson "Use Hace + length of time + que + El Indefinido " we have this example:
-¿Dónde está Jaime? -Hace dos horas que se fue.
-Where is Jaime? -He left two hours ago.
In the lesson "When to use the perfect tense versus the simple past in European Spanish (Perfecto vs Indefinido)" we have this example:
Note: If you talk about time ago using hace then the tense will still depend on whether the event in question was 'today' or another day:
Lo he visto hace 2 minutos.
I saw him two minutes ago.
Are they both correct? It they are, that tells me that when using "Hace + length of time + que + El Indefinido", we could either of these?
Jim Kurczewski
Why is it "trae" and not "está trayendo"?
Hello,
It seems to me this is more of a literal translation?
Does it meant rather: "You went the wrong way."?
Or: "You walked on the wrong side of the road." ?
Thank you for your consideration.
Nicole
I was recently given this sentence:
Eugenia (entender) ______ que no podamos ir.
I got it correct and know the form of "entender" to be used, but I have a side question: Why is "podamos" in the subjunctive here? Why not the indicative?
Why is "Te los voy a comprar." only nearly correct? Isn't this structure as correct as "Voy a comprartelos."?
I think it would also be helpful to have examples with the conjugates that still have 'z', so that we know how it sounds and how to pronounce it correctly.
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