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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,007 questions • 9,818 answers • 1,012,124 learners
Cümlenin başında unos amigos diyor.un amigo olması gerekmiyor mu? Yani bir arkadaşımın evinde
Hi Silvia. In the example, "Tal vez yo haya estudiado mucho para el examen," the English translation says, "I might have studied a lot for the exam". Is that "I might have studied a lot" in the sense "maybe I would have studied a lot [if I had time?"] Or "Perhaps (it possible) I studied a lot for the exam"? Both?
Oh wait, after writing this I realized that the sentence perhaps means, "I should have studied a lot for the exam.” We Americans almost never use the word “might” in this sense. I’m not sure how much you Brits (all British residents) do. Is this the sense in which it is used here?
Hi, is the reason for not using an indefinite article with acento that acento is an uncountable noun? Thanks,
Shirley.
Hi, just a small error. Both examples are the same.
Fui a su casa para hablar con él.I went to his house to talk to him.
Here, we could have used the preposition "a"with the same intention:
Fui a su casa a hablar con él.I went to his house to talk to him.I was wondering why there is no comma in some sentences containing a clause - for example:
A medida que salían de la clase les devolvíamos los móviles a los estudiantes.
Conforme vayan llegando los invitados ofréceles una copa de vino.
No entiendo por qué el Rey hizo eso. Él lo hizo porque quiso
Unless the Spanish have a definition of "conjunction" that differs from the one I've always understood, both "por qué" and
"porque" are both being used as conjunctions in those sentences. It is the sense of their use which differs.
Can these two uses be distinguished in spoken Spanish and if so, how?
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