Fue vs. Fue ie. Was vs. WentWhen I quizzed my Studyplan, one of the questions was:
"What does "Olivia fue a la piscina esta mañana." mean?
The correct answer was: "Olivia went to the swimming pool this morning.", which I got right, because 'ir' is followed by 'a' in this sentence.
I noticed that in the lesson all the examples using "ser" in the Preterito Indefinido were followed by either a noun or an adjective:
"Él fue alpinista en su juventud." (He was a climber in his youth.) In this case a "noun";
"Ellos fueron muy famosos el año pasado." (They were very famous last year.) In this case an "adjective".
My question is how would you say, "Olivia WAS at the swimming pool this morning."?
Would you say, "Olivia fue en la piscina esta manana."?, using "en" rather than "a"?
("Olivia fue la piscina esta manana." doesn't sound right at all.)
If this is the case, a few examples added to the lesson would be a great help.
Gracias y Saludos
In the example given:
"¿Tienes algún problema? No, pero gracias por preguntar."
Why is it not "algúnas" to match the gender of problema?
When I quizzed my Studyplan, one of the questions was:
"What does "Olivia fue a la piscina esta mañana." mean?
The correct answer was: "Olivia went to the swimming pool this morning.", which I got right, because 'ir' is followed by 'a' in this sentence.
I noticed that in the lesson all the examples using "ser" in the Preterito Indefinido were followed by either a noun or an adjective:
"Él fue alpinista en su juventud." (He was a climber in his youth.) In this case a "noun";
"Ellos fueron muy famosos el año pasado." (They were very famous last year.) In this case an "adjective".
My question is how would you say, "Olivia WAS at the swimming pool this morning."?
Would you say, "Olivia fue en la piscina esta manana."?, using "en" rather than "a"?
("Olivia fue la piscina esta manana." doesn't sound right at all.)
If this is the case, a few examples added to the lesson would be a great help.
Gracias y Saludos
Could we hide parenthesized hints when it is time to test without them? I am reaching the level where learning is becoming ingrained such that I feel that I know the answers without being told, for example,. "refers to a past action that has been completed".
Hi, is the reason for not using an indefinite article with acento that acento is an uncountable noun? Thanks,
Shirley.
These statements actually aren’t disagreements at all. They are contrasts or comparisons. Disagreement with someone saying “I am X” would be replying with something like “No, you are not X.” Replying by saying “I am not X” is not disagreeing, but rather comparing yourself to the first speaker.
I was recently given this sentence:
Eugenia (entender) ______ que no podamos ir.
I got it correct and know the form of "entender" to be used, but I have a side question: Why is "podamos" in the subjunctive here? Why not the indicative?
Hi Silvia. In the example, "Tal vez yo haya estudiado mucho para el examen," the English translation says, "I might have studied a lot for the exam". Is that "I might have studied a lot" in the sense "maybe I would have studied a lot [if I had time?"] Or "Perhaps (it possible) I studied a lot for the exam"? Both?
Oh wait, after writing this I realized that the sentence perhaps means, "I should have studied a lot for the exam.” We Americans almost never use the word “might” in this sense. I’m not sure how much you Brits (all British residents) do. Is this the sense in which it is used here?
What are the other words for adios. Like other slangs which are used in other Spanish speaking countries. Like chao. Are there any other words?
No entiendo por qué el Rey hizo eso. Él lo hizo porque quiso
Unless the Spanish have a definition of "conjunction" that differs from the one I've always understood, both "por qué" and
"porque" are both being used as conjunctions in those sentences. It is the sense of their use which differs.
Can these two uses be distinguished in spoken Spanish and if so, how?
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