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5,704 questions • 9,183 answers • 903,043 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,704 questions • 9,183 answers • 903,043 learners
I'm not great at grammar in my own language and before I started learning Spanish I didn't even know what the subjunctive was. So I've learned it's a sort of feeling expressing doubt or IF something were to happen or wishing? I can't quite see how "we're going to sit where there is shade" fits in the subjunctive. Doesn't it suggest certainty? Or am I wrong about this?
Hi,
Could 'el pelo' be removed from the above sentence and still retain the same meaning. I assume that peinarse means to comb one's own hair.
Thanks.
Colin
Shouldn’t ‘tengo’ in the first line be ‘tenga’ in the subjunctive? Why isn’t it?
vegana por su novio. I put se ha hecho.
My sister has become a vegan for her boyfriend.How is this different from the example given with the use of hacerse?
Example given:Se ha hecho vegetariana después de ver el documental.She became a vegetarian after watching the documentary.
Is it because he changed (radically) for his girlfriend and not his (ideology) on his own accord ?
I think you need an example in the lesson showing a plural number as in the test question.
I was very puzzled by this, guessed it would be correct but without any confidence.
Hola,
In the following quiz I replied with ‘...solamente hubiéramos llegado...’ and it was marked as incorrect. The required answer was just ‘hubiéramos llegado’. Was I in fact wrong to include ‘solamente’? Is the ‘if only’ implied here?
Si ________ a tiempo. If only we had come on time.HINT: Conjugate "llegar" in El Pretérito Pluscuamperfecto de SubjuntivoGracias a todos
What is the difference between tener que and deber?
Hi,
In this sentence: Vienes conmigo al cine? -________. Estoy cansada.
Why are both "no se" and "no lo se"correct, if it is expressing doubt?
Thanks
ln the present tense version of this lesson we learned that we could use the infinitive (sometimes) by dropping the "que". (The "sometimes" was not really explained, but I think one of the users may have clarified it in the comments.) Are we to infer from its omission in this lesson that we cannot similarly use the infinitive when the first clause is in the pretérito?
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