Spanish language Q&A Forum

In the example, "You have already slept enough for today," what is the reason for using 'lo' here: "Ustedes ya han dormido lo suficiente por hoy."

Hi!

So in another Q&A, a commenter said "Ahora lo tengo", expressing that now they "understand it" or they "got it". Does that work in Spanish? I haven't found a lot about that on translation websites.

Thank you!

Hola,

I don't understand how 'debido a que' is a wrong answer in the test for this question?

Ella dejó a su marido ________ su mal humor y sus celos.She left her husband because of his bad temper and jealousy.

I guess it's because it's a combination of nouns (humor, celos) without any further embellishment, but it's confused me because of the explanation referring to a noun, rather than nouns plural:

"If we use debido a que, it can never be followed just by a noun, it needs a phrase."

Gracias,