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Thinking...
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
6,014 questions • 9,828 answers • 1,013,485 learners
In the question:
They will be very cold when they go to Scotland next December.
It seems to me that this is a quite certain plan, like one of the examples here: ‘ Cuando voy de vacaciones a Tenerife me hospedo en el hotel Olimpia.’
So I thought the answer should be in the indicative:
Tendrán mucho frío cuando irán a Escocia el próximo diciembre.
But the correct answer was in the subjunctive:
Tendrán mucho frío cuando vayan a Escocia el próximo diciembre.
Why is that? Is it a mistake?
Is is possible to explain when to use tener alittle more? I found on the internet that we use tener when talking about an abstract noun or direct object. Is that correct? If so then when do I use mide+measurement etc. ?
Hi,
The word order in the above sentence confused me. If the word order was changed to:
¿Tu madre te dio el dinero?
would this change the meaning of the sentence?
If not, is the word order in the original sentence commonly used?
Thanks.
Colin
On the quiz, the question was: Es ________ hora; ven más tarde.
My answer was “una mala” and it was marked wrong. It was supposed to be just “mala”.
Could please explain why “una mala” is incorrect? It didn’t mention anything in the text about not using the article. Thanks.
Is the conjunction que missing in two of these options including a correct one?
Margarita no quería ________.Margarita didn't want Daniel to write to her.Daniel le escribieraDaniel escribirleque Daniel le escribaque Daniel le escribieseque Daniel le escribióque Daniel le escribiríaMaybe I’m wrong but I thought in English, “when” is the one that goes with pretérito indefinido because it is “when” something happens, “when” something interrupts an existing action. So I would say “I was taking a shower when the phone rang” or “when you called, I was talking to a friend.” It’s weird to me to use “when” to go with an ongoing action. I mean “when” is a point in time, right? Not an ongoing event.
My dictionary says fruit (the plant) is la fruta. Why is the sentence -Los frutos rojos and not las frutas rojas ?
I've been reading a book in print and they have "este" (no accent) as the demonstrative adjective and "éste" (accent) as the demonstrative pronoun:
esta casa (adj.)
ésta es mi casa (pron.)
But I don't see that in this lesson. Is it out of date/RAE stuff or is it only included when ambiguous and my book is being overzealous?
Also, there was a really cool little fact in the book that said that "aquél" and "éste" are used in the same way that "former" and "latter" are in English. I'm still confused as to whether the accent is necessary or optional for pronouns, however.
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